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Slav-nsk [51]
3 years ago
5

A machine that was purchased for​ $110,000 has accumulated depreciation of​ $90,000. The business exchanges the machine for a ne

w one. The new machine has a market value of​ $140,000, and the business pays​ $110,000 cash. Assume the exchange has commercial substance. This exchange results in a
A, loss of $10,000
B. gain of $5,000
C. loss of $20,000
D. gain of $10,000
Business
2 answers:
Kisachek [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

net gain = $10000

so correct option is D. gain of $10,000

Explanation:

given data

purchased =​ $110,000

accumulated depreciation = $90,000

market value = $140,000

business pays​ cash =  $110,000

to find out

exchange results

solution

we get first current book value of the machine that is here

current book value = purchased - accumulated depreciation   .....................1

put here valuer we get

current book value = $110000  -  $90000    

current book value = $20000

we know that new machine is exchanged =  $110000

and market value = $140000

so we can say here net gain is

net gain = $140000 - $110000 - $20000

net gain = $10000

so correct option is D. gain of $10,000

Elan Coil [88]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

option (D)  gain of $10,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Cost of the machine purchased earlier = $110,000

Accumulated depreciation =​ $90,000

Market value of​ the new machine = $140,000

Cash paid for the new machine = $110,000

Now,

The Book value of the old machine

= Cost of purchase - Accumulated depreciation

= $110,000 - $90,000

= $20,000

Thus,

Total amount paid for the new machine

= Book value of the old machine + Cash paid for the new machine

= $20,000 + $110,000

= $130,000

Therefore,

Gain from the exchange

= Market value of​ the new machine - Total amount paid

=  $140,000 - $130,000

= $10,000

Hence,

The correct answer is option (D)  gain of $10,000

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The cash account has a debit balance of $400. Through the month the account is debited for a total amount of $1500 and credited
g100num [7]

Answer:

$1,000

Explanation:

The computation of the ending balance of cash is shown below:

Ending balance of cash  = Debit balance of cash account + total debited the amount of cash balance - the total credited amount of cash balance

= $400 + $1,500 - $900

= $1,000

Since the cash account has debit balance so it would be added while the credit balance is deducted

8 0
3 years ago
This field of study has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, andbehavior between people in differe
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Anthropology.

Explanation:

Anthropology is a social science in which the main objective of the study is the individual as a whole. It means, anthropology studies the human being through many focuses offered by disciplines such as natural, social, and science. Anthropology allows us to know men in his society and the culture where he belongs.

6 0
3 years ago
Next, when the firms recover from the flood and businesses can start to operate again, the short-run aggregate supply curve will
Westkost [7]

When the firms recover from the flood and business start to operate again, the short-run aggregate supply curve will <u>shift to othe left to SRAS2 (B)</u> because the firms need more capitals to start producing then raise the product price. After this last shift in the aggregate supply curve, the economy will be at <u>Point B (B)</u> because the aggregate demand remains and people tend to buy fewer units of product. Finally, also suppose that people expect that there will be a huge rebuilding effort. Based on this expectation, the aggregate demand curve will <u>shift to the right to AD2 (B). </u>Because of aggregate demand's response to the expected rebuilding effort, the economy will be at <u>point D (D)</u> where the real GDP remains but inflation takes place.

To understand this case better, please take a look at the graph below.

We assume that the original position of the short-run aggregate supply is  SRAS1.

When the firms recover from the flood and start to operate again, they need more capitals to produce their products. They need more capitals and investments to operate their manufacturing again. These investment and capitals could be used to reparation their machines and repurchasing new raw materials. Align with increase in costs, the firms need to raise the product price to gain some profits. Hence, the short-run aggregate supply will shift to the left and move to SRAS2 position.

Without any intervention, the new equilibrium will move to the point B where people will buy fewer units of product at the same original price. People will reject to spend more money to buy the same amount of products as before flood happens.

The government then will make public rebuilding investments and give hopes to people. People who are now expecting a huge rebuilding effort become confidence to spend more money on purchasing the products. This condition will shift the aggregate demand curve to the right.

Because of this movement, the new equilibrium will be made. This new equilibrium will be in the long-run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve but with higher vertical position. This new equilibrium shows that the real GDP will remain the same, but there will be increase in prices or inflation.

This scenario demonstrates an inflation scenario called Cost-Pushed Inflation. Cost-Pushed Inflation happens when SRAS shifts when there is an increase in production costs or products prices. AD then will shifts because of government's policy to inject money through public investment.

Learn more about Short-run Aggregate Supply here: brainly.com/question/27064601

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7 0
1 year ago
The purpose of a restrictive monetary policy is to:a. reduce borrowing costs b. stimulate spending curb c. rising prices and ove
katovenus [111]

Answer:c. Curb rising prices and overexpansion

Explanation:

Restrictive monetary policy is enacted by the Central bank to reduce money supply, curb rising prices and overexpansion.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
4 years ago
Borke Company has a credit balance of $3,000 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. The estimated bad debt expense under the percen
Igoryamba

Answer:

Under the percentage-of-sales basis, adjusting entry required

Debit Bad debt expenses $1,100

Credit Allowance for doubtful debt  $1,100

Under the percentage-of-receivables basis, adjusting entry required

Debit Bad debt expenses $2,500

Credit Allowance for doubtful debt  $2,500

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, an allowance is created by passing a debit to bad debit expense and a corresponding credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Under the percentage-of-sales basis, additional amount to be allowed

= $4,100 - $3,000

= $1,100

Under the percentage-of-receivables basis, additional amount to be allowed

= $5,800 - $3,000

= $2,500

3 0
4 years ago
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