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aleksley [76]
3 years ago
6

A customer buys $100,000 of a new issue 30 year U.S. Government bond at 80. At maturity, the customer will have:

Business
1 answer:
exis [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: No capital gain or loss

Explanation:

The bonds were bought at discount but will be redeemed at par. This does not mean that there will be a capital gain because the discount will simply be added back to the value of the bond overtime.

When the bond then gets to maturity, the discount would simply have been added back because the bond is to be redeemed at par. Because the bond was always going to be redeemed at par, the difference in price is not considered a capital gain.

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A stockbroker predicts whether a stock will go up or down by tossing a coin and so has a 50% chance of making a correct predicti
kolezko [41]

Answer:

A skilled  broker will be right at  60% of time compared to 50%

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

Now,

Let X  be represented as = number of correct predictions/outcomes

X foll binomial distribution with n = 3 and p = 0.5 for broker who use a toss coin

Thus,

P(X = 3) = p^3 = 0.5^3 which gives us  = 0.125

So,

For a skilled broker, Y goes with the binomial distribution with n = 3 and p is = 0.6

Then,

P(Y = 3) = 0.6^3 = 0.216

We can therefore conclude who is skilled broker by making large number of observations

Hence, we say that a skilled broker will be correct 60% of time compared to 50% .

8 0
3 years ago
Geothermal corp. just announced good news: its earnings have increased by 20%. most investors had anticipated an increase of 25%
Nataly_w [17]
The answer would be the stock price will decrease. The reason behind this is the original price replicates an expectation or looking forward of a 25% upsurge in the company’s earnings. The actual increase is a dissatisfaction compared to original expectations.
3 0
3 years ago
A company purchases inventory on terms of net 30 days and resells to its customers on terms of net 15 days. The inventory conver
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

The company's cash conversion cycle is 75 days

Explanation:

The conversion cycle is the number of days that a business takes to convert its investment in inventory into cash flowing from the purchase and sales of the business.

Conversion cycle = Payable days + Inventory in Stock days + Receivable days

where

Payable days = Purchases term  = 30 days

Inventory in stock = Number of days until inventory remains unsold = 60 - 30 days = 30 days ( As payable days are already included in inventory conversion days )

Receivable days = Sales term = 15 days

Placing values in the formula

Conversion cycle = 30 days + 30 days + 15 days

Conversion Cycle = 75 days

6 0
3 years ago
Gains in income and wealth translate into an increased likelihood of having good health, showing a clear link between health and
a_sh-v [17]
It’s not for African Americans as a group even with higher levels of income and education.
7 0
3 years ago
You want to buy a new sports coupe for $84,500, and the finance office at the dealership has quoted you an apr of 6.6 percent fo
Margaret [11]

Answer: The monthly payment will be $2007.81.

We have:

Cost of the sports coupe (PV)                     $84,500

Annual Percentage Rate (APR)                         6.6%

Loan tenure in months (n)                                    48

We can find the monthly payment by using the Present value of an annuity formula:

\mathbf{PV_{Annuity}= PMT * \left ( \frac{1-(1+r)^{-n}}{r} \right )}

Since APR is a yearly number, we need to convert it into a monthly rate.

So , r = \frac{0.066}{12} = 0.0055

Plugging values in the PV formula above we get,

\mathbf{84500 = PMT * \left ( \frac{1-(1+0.0055)^{-48}}{0.0055} \right )}

\mathbf{84500 = PMT * \left ( \frac{1-0.768529253}{0.0055} \right )}

\mathbf{84500 = PMT * \left ( \frac{0.231470747}{0.0055} \right )}

\mathbf{84500 = PMT * 42.08559028}

\mathbf{\frac{84500}{42.08559028}= PMT}

\mathbf{PMT = 2007.813112}



8 0
3 years ago
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