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Murljashka [212]
2 years ago
9

The heights of 1000 students at a local school were recorded and found to be approximated by the normal curve below. Which answe

r could represent the mean and standard deviation for these data ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlada [557]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The mean of the distribution of heights of students at a local school is 63 inches and the standard deviation is 4 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

The normal curve approximating the distribution of the heights of 1000 students at a local school is shown below.

For a normal curve, the mean, median and mode are the same and represents the center of the distribution.

The center of the normal curve below is at the height 63 inches.

Thus, the mean of the distribution of heights of students at a local school is 63 inches.

The standard deviation represents the spread or dispersion of the data.

From the normal curve it can be seen that values are equally distributed, i.e. the difference between two values is of 4 inches.

So, the standard deviation is 4 inches.

You might be interested in
The cost price of a box and a pen is Rs 80 The box is sold at 10% profit and the pen is sold at 20% loss. If the selling price o
uysha [10]

Answer:

61.84%

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of the box be x. Since the price of the box and the pen is Rs 80, the pen's price can be represented as 80 - x. The box is sold at a ten percent profit, and an added ten percent is equal to 1.1. Therefore, the price the box sells at is 1.1(x). A 20% loss is the same a keeping 80% or multiplying by 0.8. This means the pen sold at 0.8(80 - x). Now, we are given the box went for Rs 28 more than the pen, so we can create an equation:

1.1x = 0.8(80 - x) + 28

We can simplify and solve:

1.1x = 64 - 0.8x + 28

1.9x = 92

x = 92/1.9

x = 920/19

The cost of the box after the increase would be 1.1(920/19) and the pen would be 0.8(80 - 920/19).

The sum of these two can be written as a percent x of 80.

80x = 0.8(80 - 920/19) + 1.1(920/19)

80x = 64 - 0.8(920/19) + 1.1(920/9)

80x = 64 - 0.3(920/19)

80x = 64 - 276/19

80x = 940/19

x = 940/1520

x = 0.6184

This is 61.84%

4 0
2 years ago
Each side of the square below is 8 inches.
evablogger [386]

Answer:

16%

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ghost, Inc., has no debt outstanding and a total market value of $369,600. Earnings before interest and taxes, EBIT, are project
arlik [135]

Answer:

Ghost Inc.

A1.

Earnings Per share (EPS)

EPS in normal projection is $4.61 per share

EPS in an expansion is $5.31 Per share

EPS in a recession is $3.51 Per share

A2.

Changes to EPS in an expansion is +15.18%

Changes to EPS in a recession is -23.86%

B1.

Earnings Per share (EPS)

EPS in normal projection is $7.23 per share

EPS in an expansion is $8.62 Per share

EPS in a recession is $5.01 Per share

B2.

Changes to EPS in an expansion is +19.23%

Changes to EPS in a recession is -30.71%

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Underlying Information:</u>

Earnings before interest and taxes, EBIT projections = $51,000

Expansionary EBIT projections = $51,000 x (100% + 15%) = $58,650

Recessionary EBIT projections = $51,000 x (100% -24%) = $38,760

Tax Rate = 24%

Market to Book Ratio = 1.0

Stock Price is constant.

Solution to A1.

<u>Scenario 1 (Projected Earnings)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBIT minus tax = $51,000 - ($51,000 x 24%)

                                                 = $51,000 - $12240

                                                 = $38,760

Outstanding shares in issue = 8,400 ordinary Shares

EPS = $38,760 divided by 8,400 shares = $4.61 Per share

<u>Scenario 2 (Projected Earnings in a strong expansion)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBIT minus tax = $58,650 - ($58,650 x 24%)

                                                 = $58,650 - $14,076

                                                 = $44,574

Outstanding shares in issue = 8,400 ordinary Shares

EPS = $44,574 divided by 8,400 shares = $5.31 Per share

<u>Scenario 3 (Projected Earnings in a Recession)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBIT minus tax = $38,760 - ($38,760 x 24%)

                                                 = $38,760 - $9,302.4

                                                 = $29,457.6

Outstanding shares in issue = 8,400 ordinary Shares

EPS = $44,574 divided by 8,400 shares = $3.51 Per share

Solution to A2.

1.Changes to EPS in an expansion = EPS (Expansion) minus EPS (normal projection), all divided by EPS (normal projection)

= (5.31 - 4.61) / 4.61

= +15.18% change during an expansion

2.Changes to EPS in a recession = EPS (Recession) minus EPS (normal projection), all divided by EPS (normal projection)

= (3.51 - 4.61) / 4.61

= -23.86% change during a recession

<u>Underlying Information:</u>

Debt issue = $185,000

Interest on debt issued = 6% = $11,100

Market to Book Ratio = 1.0

Stock Price is constant.

Therefore Share Price  = Market Value divided by Outstanding shares in issue = 369,600 / 8400 = $44

This implies our proceeds of $185,000 from debt issue would have repurchased $185,000 divided by $44 = 4,205 ordinary shares

This decision to repurchase its shares indicates the shares outstanding will reduce by 4,205. New outstanding shares will now be 4,195 shares

*Earnings before interest and taxes, EBIT normal projections  = $51,000 & Earnings Before Tax  (EBT) = $51,000 minus $11,100 (debt interest) =  $39,900

*Expansionary EBIT projections = $51,000 x (100% + 15%) = $58,650 & Earnings Before Tax = $58,650 minus $11,100 (debt interest) =  $47,550

*Recessionary EBIT projections = $51,000 x (100% -24%) = $38,760 & Earnings Before Tax = $38,760 minus $11,100 (debt interest) =  $27,660

Tax Rate = 24%

Solution to B1.

<u>Scenario 1 (Projected Earnings)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBT minus tax = $39,900 - ($39,900 x 24%)

                                                 = $39,900 - $9,576

                                                 = $30,324

Outstanding shares in issue = 4,195 ordinary Shares

EPS = $30,324 divided by 4,195 shares = $7.23 Per share

<u>Scenario 2 (Projected Earnings in a strong expansion)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBT minus tax = $47,550 - ($47,550 x 24%)

                                                 = $47,550 - $11,412

                                                 = $36,138

Outstanding shares in issue = 4,195 ordinary Shares

EPS = $36,138 divided by 4,195 shares = $8.62 Per share

<u>Scenario 3 (Projected Earnings in a Recession)</u>

Earnings Per Share (EPS) = Net Income (Earnings after Tax) divided by Outstanding Shares in Issue

Net Income = EBT minus tax = $27,660 - ($27,660 x 24%)

                                                 = $27,660 - $6,638.40

                                                 = $21,021.60

Outstanding shares in issue = 4,195 ordinary Shares

EPS = $21,021.60 divided by 4,195 shares = $5.01 Per share

Solution to B2.

1.Changes to EPS in an expansion = EPS (Expansion) minus EPS (normal projection), all divided by EPS (normal projection)

= (8.62 - 7.23) / 7.23

= +19.23% change during an expansion

2.Changes to EPS in a recession = EPS (Recession) minus EPS (normal projection), all divided by EPS (normal projection)

= (5.01 - 7.23) / 7.23

= -30.71% change during a recession

6 0
2 years ago
Triangle ABC is congruent to triangle DFE. Find x.
Archy [21]

ΔABC ≡ ΔDFE

⇒ line EF = BC

.

<u>Solve x:</u>

3x - 4 = 20

3x = 24

x = 8

.

Answer: x = 8

4 0
3 years ago
A group of researchers wants to know whether men are more likely than women to contract a novel coronavirus. They surveyed two r
olasank [31]

Answer:

Test statistic Z= 0.13008 < 1.96 at 0.10 level of significance

null hypothesis is accepted

There is no difference proportion of positive tests among men is different from the proportion of positive tests among women

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Step(I)</em>:-

Given surveyed two random samples of 390 men and 360 women who were tested

first sample proportion

                    p_{1} = \frac{360}{390} = 0.9230

second sample proportion

                  p_{2} = \frac{47}{52} = 0.9038

Step(ii):-

Null hypothesis : H₀ : There is no difference  proportion of positive tests among men is different from the proportion of positive tests among women

Alternative Hypothesis:-

There is difference between proportion of positive tests among men is different from the proportion of positive tests among women

 

Z = \frac{p_{1}- p_{2} }{\sqrt{PQ(\frac{1}{n_{1} }+\frac{1}{n_{2} }  } }

where

          P = \frac{n_{1}p_{1} +n_{2}  p_{2} }{n_{1}+n_{2}  }

         P =  0.920

Z= \frac{0.9230-0.9038}{\sqrt{0.920 X0.08(\frac{1}{390}+\frac{1}{52}  } )}

Test statistic Z =  0.13008

Level of significance = 0.10

The critical value Z₀.₁₀ = 1.645

Test statistic Z=0.13008 < 1.645 at 0.1 level of significance

Null hypothesis is accepted

There is no difference proportion of positive tests among men is different from the proportion of positive tests among women







7 0
3 years ago
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