Answer:
$10,125 Favorable
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity
Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)
Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)
Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750
Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable
Variable overhead spending variance is
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Answer:
4. Available investments
Explanation:
To enable me estimate my available investments, I need my bank statements, credit statements and record of cash expenses
An outline<span> is like a map showing the best path. ... wants to present -- arranged in the order the writer thinks will be most </span>effective<span>. ... Then they write the </span>outline<span>, to see if one paragraph leads smoothly to the next, or if they've left something out. .... They are useful </span>because they<span>: help the writer organize their thoughts before ... your answer is in this paragraph </span>
Answer:
B. 75%.
Explanation:
The formula to compute the long-term debt to equity ratio is shown below:
= (Long term debt) ÷ (total shareholder equity) × 100
= ($360 ÷ $480) × 100
= 75%
All other information which is given in the question is not consider for the computation part. Hence, ignored it
We simply divide the long term debt with the total shareholder equity to find out the ratio between them
Answer:
The firm should increase output and reduce price
Explanation:
For a monopolist, there can be one of the following three scenarios at a time point in time:
Scenario one, MR = MC: For a monopolist, profit is maximized at the point where marginal revenue (MR) is equal to to marginal cost (MC), i.e. where MR = MC.
Scenario two, MR < MC: But when the MR < MC, it indicates that the monopolist is currently producing a higher quantity of output and it is not maximizing profit. In order to maximize profit, the monopolist has to reduce output until MR = MC.
Scenario three , MR > MC: But when the MR > MC, it indicates that the monopolist is currently producing a lower quantity of output and it is not maximizing profit. In order to maximize profit, the monopolist has to increase output until MR = MC. Also, the monopolist has to reduce price in order to sell the increased quantity of output.
From the question, the monopolist falls into scenerio three as MR > MC, i.e. $45 > $35. Therefore, the monopolist should increase output until MR = MC and reduce price in order to maximize profit.
