The original price of the machine is $2,600 but it has a depreciation value now of $1,200.
*original price - depreciation value = machine's existing value*
$2,600 - $1,200 = $1,400
However, they've sold the machine for $2,200 instead of 1,400 (which is supposedly the existing price). So, they've gain $800 ($2,200 deducted by $1,400) out from this transaction.
Answer:
Explanation:
std rate $9.00
actual rate $8.50
standard hours 5,200
Total variance: 390 Favorable
Rate variance:
Efficiency
Total:
rate + efficiency

We plug our know values and solve:

0.5actual hours + 46,800 - 9actual hours = 390
46,800 - 390 = 8.5 actual hours
46,410/8.5 = actual hours = 5,460
now we calculate each variance:
rate: 2,730
efficiency (2,340)
Answer:
$22,800
Explanation:
Calculation for the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred
First step is to find the fixed manufacturing overhead portion
Fixed manufacturing overhead portion=$3.00 *5000 units
Fixed manufacturing overhead portion =$15,000
Second step is to calculate the indirect manufacturing cost if 6,000 units are produced using this formula
Indirect manufacturing cost =Fixed manufacturing overhead portion
+ Variable portion
Let plug in the formula
Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000 + ($1.30*6,000 units)
Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000+$7,800
Indirect manufacturing cost=$22,800
Therefore the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred is closest to $22,800
Answer:
C
Explanation:
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