The US social welfare system differs markedly from those of western European democracies, a situation that is attributable in large part to America's group of:<u> cultural </u><u>emphasis on</u><u> individualism, </u><u>and federal system of government</u>.
Unlike the American government, European democracies redistribute income among their citizens on a much larger scale. Social and cultural programmes in Europe are more generous and benefit more people. The tax regimes in Europe are more progressive. European laws aimed at defending the underprivileged are more generous.
In the United States, the distribution of before-tax income is more skewed and has a greater volatility. There is no proof that taxes in Europe result in decreased deadweight losses. Additionally, income volatility seems to be less erratic in Europe than it is in the US. However, there's a probability that middle-class households in the US have a higher likelihood of advancing up the income scale, which may make the average voter less in favour of redistribution.
To learn more about European social democracies, refer
brainly.com/question/13824231
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Answer:
d
Explanation:
well, if you are in practicaly the same area, they both would have the same or very close to the same resources
Answer:
<h2>True</h2>
Explanation:
<h2>Hopes this helps. Mark as brainlest plz!</h2>
I think that the part of the continent meant in the Question is the North-Western part of the continent and the countries are:
France
Spain
Great Britain
United States.
At the time between 1760 and 1790 none of these countries made any claims to what is today Alaska
