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Arte-miy333 [17]
3 years ago
8

Why did the british pass the sugar act and stert taxing colinists

History
1 answer:
Allisa [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Parliament, desiring revenue from its North American colonies, passed the first law specifically aimed at raising colonial money for the Crown. The act increased duties on non-British goods shipped to the colonies.

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Why does the United States use embargoes as a tool of foreign policy?
loris [4]

Answer:

A. Cutting off all relations with a country is an effective way to show that its actions are unacceptable.

Explanation:

In trade and international politics, an embargo is the prohibition of trading and negotiating with a particular country. It is usually declared by one group of nations against another, in order to isolate it and place its government in a difficult internal situation, since the effects of the embargo often cause its economy to suffer. The embargo is normally used as a political punishment for certain prior policies with which it is not agreed, although its economic nature often leaves enough space to doubt the true interests that benefit from the measure.

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3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT a reason that private firms do not provide public goods? A. the free-rider problem
frosja888 [35]
D or A is the answer. I least I narrowed it down.
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What is the historical setting for rigoletto? an italian court, during the renaissance era paris, during the nineteenth century
irina [24]

Answer: an Italian court, during the Renaissance era

Rigoletto is considered as one of the operatic masterpieces of Giuseppe Verdi.

It is an opera of three acts wghich revolves around a Duke, Rigoletto, and Rigoletto's beautiful daughter Gilda.

Rigoletto’s original title is La maledizione meaning “The Curse.” The setting took place in northern Italy in the town of Mantua during the 16th century.


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Neko [114]
According to John B. Gordon, a Southern point of view regarding the power of states under the <span>Constitution was that state sovereignty was more important than federal power. </span>
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During the 19th century, the United States ability to remain isolated from European affairs was largely due to its
kenny6666 [7]
I think that the best answer is the geographic location: many other countries (Sweden for example) have tried being neutral at different times but did not manage to: but the fact that the US has only two boundaries, and that both other countries also have a history of fighting from independence from a European power,  makes it possible that unless US decideds to get involved in international politics, it can be "left alone". 
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