Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
From the question,
Qd = 100 – 2P
We have to use the subject of the formula to get the expression for Price(P). This will be
2P = 100 - Qd
P= (100 - Qd) /2
P = 50 - 0.5Q
Also, C(Q) = 10Q
MC = 10
Since P = MC
50 - 0.5Q = 10
Collect like terms.
50 - 10 = 0.5Q
0.5Q = 40
Q = 40/0.5
Q = 80
Recall that,
P = 50 - 0.5Q
= 50 - 0.5(80)
= 50 - 40
= 10
The profit will be calculated as:
= TR - TC
where,
Total revenue = Price × Quantity
= 80 × 10 = 800
Total cost = 10Q = 10 × 80 = 800
Profit = 800 - 800 = 0
Answer and Explanation:
The preparation of the cost of goods sold section of a multiple-step income statement is presented below:
<u>Cost of goods section</u>
<u>Multiple-income statement</u>
Opening inventory $37,000
Estimated return inventory $1,000
Purchase $102,000
Less purchase returns -$4,200
Less: Purchase discount -$2,040
Add: Freight in $800
Less: closing inventory -$30,500
Less: estimated return inventory -$1,500
Cost of goods sold $102,560
Net purchases
*freight in
=cost of good purchased
Please simplify this question so I can answer it
