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VMariaS [17]
3 years ago
7

A company with 100,000 authorized shares of $4 par common stock issued 40,000 shares at $8. Subsequently, the company declared a

4% stock dividend on a date when the market price was $12 a share. What is the amount transferred from the retained earnings account to paid-in capital accounts as a result of the stock dividend? a.$19,200 b.$32,000 c.$12,800 d.$48,800
Business
1 answer:
LenKa [72]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

option A,$19,200

Explanation:

The amount stock dividend issued that needs to be transferred  from retained earnings to paid-in capital accounts by debiting the retained earnings and crediting the paid-in capital accounts is computed by the below formula:

Stock dividend value=stock dividend %* issued shares*market price

stock dividend % is 4%

issued shares is 40,000 shares

market price of stock is $12

stock dividend value=4%*40,000*$12=$19,200

The correct option is $19,200 option A.

One should be misled by the issue price of $8 per share,since that gives a different option which is wrong

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Which one of the following actions by a financial manager is most apt to create an agency problem? Increasing current profits wh
MrRissso [65]

Answer: Increasing current profits when doing so lowers the value of the company's equity.

Explanation:

The main purpose of a company is to increase the wealth of shareholders. In their capacity as stewards for the company, managers should be working therefore to achieve this goal.

When management neglects this goal and begins to seek an improvement in their welfare and wealth instead of the shareholder', this is an Agency problem.

If a Financial manager is increasing current profits even though doing so will lower the value of the company's equity, this can create an agency problem because the shareholders are suffering but the finance manager might get rewarded for increasing profits.

6 0
2 years ago
An economy is operating with output $300 billion above its natural level, and fiscal policymakers want to close this expansionar
topjm [15]

Answer:

$120 billion

Explanation:

Economy operating at $300 billion above its natural level of output.

Marginal propensity to consume, MPC = 3/5 = 0.6

For closing this expansionary gap, the government have to decrease its spending by the amount calculated as follows:

Spending multiplier:

= 1/ (1 - MPC)

= 1/ (1 - 0.6)

= 1/ 0.4

= 2.5

Hence, the government spending reduces by

= Expansionary gap ÷ Spending multiplier

= $300 ÷ 2.5

= $120 billion

4 0
3 years ago
Assume there are only three possible states of nature for the economy in the future: boom, normal, and recession. If there is a
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

a. 45%

Explanation:

The sum of total probabilities  is always equal to 1. Since in the given question only three probabilities are given, so the sum of these three probabilities shall be 1 which is represented as follows by the equation:

probability of boom+probability of normal+probability of recession=1

In the given question:

probability of boom=30%

probability of recession=25%

30%+probability of normal+25%=1

Probability of normal=1-25%-30%=45%

So based on the above calculations, the answer shall be a. 45%

7 0
3 years ago
A city's potential for growth or its susceptibility to decline is determined by a set of economic activities that the city provi
lapo4ka [179]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Economic base are businesses that generate employment in a community or a geographical area.

Economic base analysis is a theory that posits that activities in an area divide into two categories:

1) Basic industries are those exporting from the region and bringing wealth from outside.

2)Nonbasic industries support basic industries.

The basic industries of a region are identified by comparing employment in the region to national norms.

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(a) Where the parent company does not hold 100 percent equity of the subsidiary company, what portion of the intra-group transac
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

In point a:

If the parent firm doesn't hold the conglomerate's equity stake, depreciation expense acknowledged by the parent company's owner and expenditures shall be removed throughout the consolidated statement of financial position. Its combined cash flow deletes debts previously recognized as assets for both the parent corporation and as debts for all the subsidiaries to offer a real and equal view. All the intragroup balance should be removed to avoid double-counting of financial assets resulting from payments in between the group's members.

In point b:

If a parent company has a stake in a subsidiary that is called noncontrolling interest over 50%, but less than 99 percent. Its parent company shall report a different non-controlling interest line on the income statement and revenue report to reveal its noncontrolling interest.

In point c:

Its Group of non - management Concerns may not claim responsibility mostly on a share of a benefit, doesn't have any influence from over parent's decision. Intra-group payments in a word-level shall be removed.

In point d:

Its NCI share of the opening in net assets of the subsidiary + NCI share of even an amortization fair value + NCI profits due to NCI - (dividend payable to the noncontrolling shareholder) = unlawful interest at the date of the merger is three steps for the calculation of total the uncontrol value.

7 0
2 years ago
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