Take that certain number we are looking for as 'n'
38% ⇒ 0.38
0.38n = 152
Divide by 0.38
0.38n = 152
/0.38 /0.38
n = 400
So 38% of 400 is 152.
Answer:
what.....
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.0903
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
The mean = 1450
The standard deviation = 220
sample mean = 1560



P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)
P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)
From the z tables;
P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915
P(X> 1560) = 0.3085
Let consider the given number of weeks = 52
Mean
= np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042
The standard deviation =
The standard deviation = 
The standard deviation = 3.3306
Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.
Then;
Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)


From z tables
P(Y > 20)
0.0903
Y = (-3/2)x + 1 is the equatjon
The answer is: " 6.4 blocks " .
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3.2 blocks (one way), PLUS: 3.2 blocks the other way:
3.2 + 3.2 = 6.4 blocks .
or: (3.2) * 2 = 6.4 blocks .
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The answer is: " 6.4 blocks " .
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