Answer:
360 combinations
Step-by-step explanation:
To calculate the number of different combinations of 2 different flavors, 1 topping, and 1 cone, we are going to use the rule of multiplication as:
<u> 6 </u>* <u> 5 </u> * <u> 4 </u>* <u> 3 </u>= 360
1st flavor 2nd flavor topping cone
Because first, we have 6 possible options for the flavor, then we only have 5 possible options for the 2nd flavor. Then, we have 4 options for the topping and finally, we have 3 options for the cone.
It means that there are 360 different combinations of two different flavors, one topping, and one cone are possible
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
$62.50 $35.00/ $3.50 = 10
-$27.50 x=10
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$35.00
Matteo can buy a maximum of 10 socks.
Answer:
y=-15
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.6173 = 61.73% probability that the product operates.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each integrated circuit, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are defective, or they are not. The integrated circuits are independent. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which 
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
An electronic product contains 48 integrated circuits.
This means that 
The probability that any integrated circuit is defective is 0.01.
This means that 
The product operates only if there are no defective integrated circuits. What is the probability that the product operates?
This is P(X = 0). So
0.6173 = 61.73% probability that the product operates.
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
If ∑aₙ converges, then lim(n→∞)aₙ = 0.
Using ratio test, we can determine if the series converges:
If lim(n→∞) |aₙ₊₁ / aₙ| < 1, then ∑aₙ converges.
If lim(n→∞) |aₙ₊₁ / aₙ| > 1, then ∑aₙ diverges.
lim(n→∞) |(100ⁿ⁺¹ / (n+1)!) / (100ⁿ / n!)|
lim(n→∞) |(100ⁿ⁺¹ / (n+1)!) × (n! / 100ⁿ)|
lim(n→∞) |(100 / (n+1)|
0 < 1
The series converges. Therefore, lim(n→∞)aₙ = 0.
