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Hunter-Best [27]
2 years ago
8

What percent of 42 is 28

Mathematics
1 answer:
Yuri [45]2 years ago
7 0
Let the % be "x"
Now according to the question,
x% of 42 = 28
(x / 100)*42 = 28
42x / 100 = 28
42x = 28 * 100
x = (28 * 100) / 42
x = 66.67 ..............................answer rounded to the nearest hundredth

So, 66.67% of 42 is 28
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Given the probability of success of each detector is 0.84 independently of the others, their combined success/failure probability can be computed with the product rule.

We can calculate the required probability by using the binomial distribution, but it's easier to calculate the probability of the negated event an subtract from 1.

We want to know the probability that a least one of the 4 systems detects the occurrence of theft. That probability is the sum of the probabilities that one of them, two of them, three of them or all of them succeed. The negated event is that NONE of them actually detects the theft. Being p the individual probability of success, p=0.84. Being q the probability of failure, q=0.16.

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P(x\geq1)=1-P(0)=1-0.00065536=0.9993

That means a 99.93%

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