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Luba_88 [7]
3 years ago
11

Two step equations that equal 14

Mathematics
1 answer:
Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x+10=14

2x=14-10

2x=4

x=4/2

x=2

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Find 2a for a = 3 1/4. 23 1/4 6 1/4 6 1/2 5 1/2
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6 \frac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

you are adding 3 1/4 to 3 1/4 which is 6 2/4 or 6 1/2

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Solve nt+6-xt=s for t
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I need help fast with this! please (14 points)
sveta [45]

Answer:

<em>Part 1 : Equation: ( 3x - 9 ) + 30 + 24 = 180,</em>

<em>Part 2 : Value of x ⇒ 45°,</em>

<em>Part 3 : Measure of Angle U ⇒ 126°</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

~ Part 1 ~

We know that ∑ of angles in a triangle is 180;

m∠ U + m∠ V + m∠ W = 180°,

<em>Equation: ( 3x - 9 ) + 30 + 24 = 180</em>

~ Part 2 ~

Now let us simplify the equation above to solve for x;

3x - 9 + 30 + 24 = 180,

3x - 9 = 126,

3x = 135,

x = 45 degrees ( ° ) ⇒

<em>Value of x ⇒ 45°</em>

~ Part 3 ~

If it is known that m∠ U ⇒ 3x - 9;

m∠ U = 3 * ( 45 ) - 9,

m∠ U = 135 - 9,

m∠ U = 126 degrees ( ° ) ⇒

<em>Measure of Angle U ⇒ 126°</em>

6 0
4 years ago
About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

a) P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

8 0
3 years ago
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