Answer:
The correct answer is letter "C": a result of more efficient resource allocation than would be observed in the absence of trade.
Explanation:
Trade has allowed societies to exchange their products according to their needs. Thanks to trade those goods are distributed accordingly more <em>efficiently </em>since, in isolation, countries would be specialists of certain types of products only which is unlikely to be enough to cover all the individuals' needs in those societies.
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
Answer:
A)not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.
Explanation:
Trade can be regarded as basic economic concept which involves the buying as well as selling of goods and services, having a compensation that is been paid by a buyer to a seller.
The Ricardian model can be regarded as model that incorporates the standard assumptions of a perfect competition. This model in it's simplest form give assumption of two countries that are producing two goods, but uses one factor of production, the goods here are usually assumed to be identical, or to be homogeneous, within as well as across countries. It should be noted that when there is higher wage, there will be greater number of workers that are willing to work and vice versa, which defined the relationship between wages and productivity. productivity gives the
measurement of how efficiently labor
is been utilized when producing goods and services.
It should be noted that If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.
