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3 years ago

What is a risker loan for the lender?

Business

1 answer:

Nadya [2.5K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

A risky mortgage is really a loan product that doesn't correspond to the borrower's ability to repay it. During the crisis, certain mortgage types were being matched with the wrong borrowers, and lenders were reeling them in with the prospect of refinancing. These loans had a foreclosure start rate of 3.39%.

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Which service will a c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive?.

Thepotemich [5.8K]

The service a c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive is: Case Management such as telephonic, digital and/or face-to-face according to a person needs.

CSNP which full meaning is chronic condition special needs plan is a plan that that enables people that has been diagnosed with chronic health condition to enroll for and this people must be a beneficiary of Medicare plan.

Medicare is an health insurance coverage that help to cover the medical cost of those that enroll under the plan.

Therefore the service a c-snp or d-snp member in the high risk care management category receive is: Case Management such as telephonic, digital and/or face-to-face based on individual needs.

Learn more about CSNP here:brainly.com/question/25075356

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2 years ago

Leslie hypothesizes that teenagers who read magazines develop low self-esteem because of the unrealistic expectations set by the

alexdok [17]

<span>group that has unrealistic expectations and therefore the group with the lowest self-esteem on the confidence scale administered by Leslie</span>

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4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which of the following is not typical of traditional costing systems? Use of direct labor hours or direct labor cost to assign o

EleoNora [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is use of multiple cost drivers to allocate overhead

Explanation:

Use of direct labor hours or direct labor cost to assign overhead to products is typical of traditional costing systems as overhead is believed to have positive relationship with labor-related variables.

Besides,using a business-wide or plant-wide single predetermined overhead rate is not feature of traditional systems of costing.

Since labor-related variables such as direct labor hours or direct labor cost is assumed to be a driver of overhead cost,hence an appropriate overhead absorption basis,it is perfectly understood that there is correlation between direct labor and incurrence of overhead cost in the business.

8 0

4 years ago

Sasha works for a large corporation, and sometimes, she finds it difficult to see how she fits into the corporate picture. Howev

FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

C. It can boost employee productivity.

Explanation:

Sasha's company decision to establish an employee stock ownership plan has the potential benefit of boosting employee productivity because staff members and people in general are motivated by rewards.

Employee stock ownership plan is a staff reward scheme where a company's employees are awarded shares of the company they work for, hence they become both staff and shareholders of that company.

Sometimes these plans are futuristic, they are awarded at a certain date in future if the company achieves certain goals. Hence the productivity of employees are boosted in the bid to boost the company's performance and achieve their share rewards

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3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. Adviser A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5, and adviser B a

Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

A. Advisor A was better because he generated a larger alpha.

Explanation:

To determine which adviser would be the better stock selector, we will calculate the required rate of return of each adviser and the return actually averaged. The adviser with the greater abnormal return, which is return in excess of required rate, will be the better stock selector.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r of Adviser A = 0.05 + 1.5 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser A = 0.17 or 17%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser A = 20% - 17% = 3%

r of Adviser B = 0.05 + 1.2 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser B = 0.146 or 14.6%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser B = 15% - 14.6% = 0.4%

Adviser A performed better as the excessive return or alpha of Adviser A was 3% while that of Adviser B was 0.4%

7 0

3 years ago