Simplify. Write your answer as a proper or improper fraction in simplest form.
2 answers:
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= 0.10606
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have only one digit in the numerator and the denominator has 2 digits, we have to 0 along with 7, so that it becomes 70, 1 time 66 is 66, 70 - 66 = 4 is the remainder, so the quotient is 0.1, then along with 4 we have to add one 0 , so it becomes 40 which is lesser than 66 so one more 0 is added and then it becomes 400, 6 times 66 is 396, 400 - 396 = 4 again the process going on. The quotient is 0.10606...
Answer:
19.49% probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial probability distribution
Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.
Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.
The expected value of the binomial distribution is:
The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:
Normal probability distribution
Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.
In a set with mean and standard deviation
, the zscore of a measure X is given by:
The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.
When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that ,
.
In this problem, we have that:
So
What is the probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes?
Using continuity correction, this is , which is the pvalue of Z when X = 16.5. So
has a pvalue of 0.1949
19.49% probability that no more than 16 of them are strikes