Answer:
C. Infant-industry argument
Explanation:
The lobbyst is using the infant-industry argument because he is claiming that all that the emerging national industry needs is some temporary trade restrictions until it can develop enough to compete.
This argument is very commonly used against free trade, and is based on the belief that national industries should be allowed to grow in isolation before opening up the markets. The problem with this argument is what happens if the national industry remains uncompetitive even after a long period of trade restrictions.
The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.
<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
- Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
- The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
- Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
- A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
- The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
- If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.
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After all resulting adjustments have been completed, the new equilibrium price will less than the initial price and output. The same will happen to the industry output. In each situation in which <span>an increase in product demand occurs in a decreasing-cost industry the result is: </span>the new long-run equilibrium price is lower than the original long-run equilibrium price.
Answer:
The answer is c. present value index
Explanation:
Present value index is the ratio decided by dividing net present value of the project by its require initial net cash outflows.
Once having constraint on selecting investment with positive NPV to be made due to lack of fund, a firm's usually use Present value index for further decision making.
The investment with higher present value index shows that it generates more net cash flow or in other words, more efficient and requires less initial cash outflow, and thus usually be chosen over the other ones with lower present value index.
Answer:
There is not gain in this operation so the answer is $0
Explanation:
There are some journal entries that needs to be done to have a full picture of the statement
* Purchase
Fixed Assets 690.000
Cash 690.000
* Monthly depreciation
Since, the FA was depreciated during 8 years. Firstly you have to calculate the amount that can be depreciate on a monthly basis
Amount to be depreciated = (Cost of the FA - Salvage value) = (690.000-48.600) = 641.400
Then calculate the yearly depreciation
Yearly depreciation = ((amount to be depreciated/useful life) * years used) =
(641.400/10*8) = 513.120
then the journal entry to record the monthly depreciation for 8 years is
Depreciation expense 513.120
Acc Depreciation 513.120
* Post the Journal Entry to record the sell of FA
You have to reverse the Acc Depreciation and credit the FA
Cash 152.500
Fixed assets 690.000
Acc depreciation 513.120
Loss on sale of FA 24.380
