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bonufazy [111]
2 years ago
14

Dollar Co. sold merchandise to Pound Co. on account, $25,500, terms 2/15, net 45. Pound Co. paid the invoice within the discount

period. What is the sales amount to be recorded in the above transactions? Group of answer choices
$26,010
$16,000
$24,990
$25,500
Business
1 answer:
aniked [119]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$24,990

Explanation:

2/15 net 45 means that if the customer pays within the period of 15 days, he will get the discount of 2% of invoice amount, otherwise he has to pay the whole amount of invoice within the period of 45 days.

In the given scenario, since the Pound Co. has paid the invoice within the discount period, so therefore, the Pound Co. has availed the discount of 2% and accordingly the sales amount shall be recorded as follows:

Sales amount=Invoice amount*98%

                       =$25,500*98%

                       =$24,990

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6. Assuming the partial billing was approved for payment and the expenditure and liability (contracts payable) was recorded for
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

Option A, Credit to Cash, $560,000

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Expenditure and liability = $700,000

Retaining percentage = 20%

Assuming the partial billing was certified for expenses and payments and liability was approved for amount $70,000. Though, Oxford has a policy not to pay 100 percent, but to retain  20 percent as a retained percentage.  

So, $700,000 - $700,000 × 20%

= $700,000 - $140,000

= $560,000

Therefore, The entry to record the approved payment and retained percentage would include:  

Option A, Credit to Cash, $560,000

8 0
3 years ago
Recommend financial reporting and auditing-related reforms that would likely be effective in preventing or detecting frauds simi
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

The answer is stated below:

Explanation:

If the SEC and the AICPA, worked altogether in order to share the information, they might have detected the fraud prior. The case states that the Madoff Securities does not required to submit the peer review program to AICPA as Friehling, had recorded that he did not perform or conduct any audits.

Recommendation

1. The policy execution for the exchange of the information among the two firms would be useful to detect the fraud.

2. The PCAOB should spend more resources an attending the hotline of whistle blowing through executing the policies which need certain complaints to be addressed effectively.

3. The firms or company should have done more in order to verify the financial statements assertions, which surrounds the investments. The PCAOB need to execute the policy that require the companies (such as Madoff Securities) to correctly answer the inquiries of the auditor.

6 0
3 years ago
The price/sales multiple is typically only used for the valuation of firms without earnings. true false
sveta [45]

The main purpose of price/sales multiple ratio is typically only for the purpose of valuation of firms having no earnings till the date of valuation. Therefore, the given statement holds true.

<h3>What is the significance of Price/Sales ratio?</h3>

Price/Sales ratio can be referred to or considered as a ratio that is used to determine the total sales made by the company without earning any profits over their sales at a given price.

Investors use this ratio in order to valuate a firm based on the sales they have made in multiples, however without earnings, that can prove to derive good investment returns in the future.

Therefore, the aforementioned statement regarding price/sales ratio holds true.

Learn more about price/sales ratio here:

brainly.com/question/14856408

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
Bank A has a higher ROA than Bank B. Both banks have similar interest income to asset ratios and noninterest income to asset rat
iren2701 [21]

Answer:

A) I only

Explanation:

We can conclude that bank A will be more profitable than bank B since ROA is a measurement of profitability, and if the banks are operating in a similar manner (both interest income to asset ratios and noninterest income to asset ratios are similar), then the bank with the highest ROA is the most profitable one.

8 0
3 years ago
Joe sold gold coins for $1,000 that he bought a year ago for $1,000. He says, "At least I didn't lose any money on my financial
sergejj [24]

Answer:

B) opportunity costs.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the fortified benefits when a choice is made. It is the sacrificed option from a  variety of possible choices. The value of opportunity cost is expressed as the cost of the next best alternative.

According to the economist, Joe made a loss because his opportunity cost would have yielded a better return. In evaluating the viability of a project, economists always consider the returns from the next best alternative. Joe would have made a profit if the returns from the sales of gold were higher than the 3 percent from a certificate of deposit.  Because Joe opted for the gold, he missed the chance to earn from the certificate of deposit. In economics, he made a loss.

3 0
2 years ago
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