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Andru [333]
3 years ago
14

Which of the following is an inconsistency of using market multiples to determine value? A) Using a market multiple assumes that

the target company is correctly priced, while comparable companies are mispriced. B) Using a market multiple assumes that the target company is mispriced, while comparable companies are correctly priced. C) Using a market multiple assumes that all companies are mispriced. D) Using a market multiple assumes that the target company can be fully described by its summary performance measure.
Business
1 answer:
VikaD [51]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B) Using a market multiple assumes that the target company is mispriced, while comparable companies are correctly priced.

Explanation:

Market Multiple, also known as trading multiples, is used to compare two financial measures, to determine the value of a company. It is another name for Price to Earnings Ratio (also called P/E Ratio).

Using the market multiple approach, investors can determine whether stocks in their portfolios will increase or decrease in price through the next term. Investors may then buy or sell stocks in order to maximize their expected gains calculated.

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Tom knows that the title insurance company made a mistake on his property title. Because of their mistake, his neighbor now has
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

The correct answer is d. risk aversion.

Explanation:

Risk aversion is an investor's preference for avoiding uncertainty in their financial investments.

Due to this attitude towards risk, this type of individuals directs their investment portfolio to safer financial assets even though they are less profitable.

The phenomenon of risk aversion implies by definition a certain level of risk rejection by a person who invests in financial markets. A person may face a risk aversion situation, be risk neutral or be risk prone.

7 0
3 years ago
The trustees of a pension fund would like to examine the issue of protecting the bonds
Trava [24]

Answer:

The answer is C they but at a discount, the entire issues of new security....ation:

5 0
3 years ago
When reporting inventory using the lower of cost or market, market should not be less than:
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

Net realizable value less a normal profit margin.

Explanation:

Lower of cost or market rule of inventory states that cost of inventory recorded must be that at which cost is lower, and the original cost is the current market price.

This occurs when the inventory has become obsolete, market price has declined, or inventory has deteriorated

Net realisable value is defined as selling price minus estimated cost of completion.

So the market value should not be less than net realizable value less a normal profit margin.

3 0
3 years ago
Chaco Company’s trial was in balance at the end of the period and showed the following accounts: Accounts Payable 25,200 Cash 40
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

$92,400

Explanation:

Balance of the credit column on Chaco’s trial balance.

The Total credit column balance will be:

Accounts payable $25,200

Common Stock $21,200

Notes payable $46,000

We are going to add them up

Hence:

Total credit balance =

$25,200 + $21,200 + $46,000

Total credit balance = $92,400

5 0
3 years ago
Fill out the following tables to practice calculating the CPI for different base years (_____/5)
Temka [501]

Answer:

CPI for 2007 where base year is 2006 is 100%

CPI for 2008 where base year is 2007 is 25%

CPI for 2009 where base year is 2008 is -20%

CPI for 2010 where base year is 2009 is 212.5%

CPI for 2011 where base year is 2010 is 60%

Explanation:

The CPI (consumer price index) for different years is calculated by this formula:

CPI= (Current price in X year/base price in X year)

CPI for 2007 if 2006 is the base year. = $40/$20

                                                              =2x100 then we multiply by 100 to get the percentage as the baseline for the CPI .

                                                                =200% - 100%= 100% we then subtract 100% to get how much change over time has happened and in this case CPI is 100% that meanse there was a 100%inflation rate in prices.

CPI for 2008 if 2007 is the base year = $50/$40 we substitute the prices respective to the base year 2007 using the above mentioned formula to calculate CPI.

                                                                  = 1.25 x 100 then we multiply by 100 to get the percentage as the baseline for the CPI for year 2008.

                                                                   =125% -100% = 25% this means that CPI is 25% which there was an inflation rate of 25% between year 2007 and 2008.

CPI for 2009 if 2008 was the base year= $40/$50 we again substitute the prices using the above mentioned formula to calculate CPI where 2008 is now the base year.

                                                                    =0.8x100 to get the percentage we multiply by 100%

                                                                    = 80% - 100%= -20% this means that CPI has decreased by 25% between 2008 and 2009 there was deflation in prices.

CPI for 2010 if 2009 is the base year = $125/$40 we substitute to the above formula where 2009 is the base year.

                                                                 =3.125x 100 we then multiply by 100 to get the percentage of CPI.

                                                                   =312.5%- 100%=212.5% which means there was inflation of 212.5% in prices on the CPI.

CPI for 2011 if 2010 is the base year = $200/$125

                                                                 =1.6x 100

                                                                 =160%-100%

                                                            CPI= 60%  

This means in the economy there was an inflation of 60%.

4 0
3 years ago
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