Answer:
a, Coefficient of variation
= <u>Standard deviation</u> x 100
Mean
b, Coefficient of variation
Asset A
Coefficient of variation
= <u>$23.48</u> x 100
$181.92
= 12.91%
Asset B
Coefficient of variation
= <u>$0.09</u> x 100
$0.38
= 23.68%
Asset C
Coefficient of variation
= <u>$27.31 </u> x 100
$247.19
= 11.05%
Asset C is least volatile while Asset B is most volatile
Explanation:
Coefficient of variation is the ratio of standard deviation to mean (expected return) multiplied by 100. It is used to measure the volatility of assets. Asset C has the least coefficient of variation, thus, it is the least volatile. Asset B has the highest coefficient of variation, which implies that it is the most volatile.
Answer:
There will be $92,635.42 in the account after 15 years.
Explanation:
Missing question <em>"The interest rate is fixed at 2.05%"</em>
As the employer does a 50% match on the employee’s investment, the monthly contribution to the retirement plan will be = 2 * $220 = $ 440.
The future value (F) of an annuity is given by F = (P/r)[(1+r)n-1]
P is the periodic payment
r is the rate per period
n is the number of periods.
P = 440, r = 2.05/1200 and n = 15*12 = 180.
F = (440*1200/2.05)[ (1+2.05/1200)180 -1]
F = (528000/2.05)*0.359664042
F = 92635.4215493
F = $92635.42
Thus, there will be $92,635.42 in the account after 15 years.
Answer:
$82,400
Explanation:
Cost of goods sold = beginning merchandise inventory + purchases - ending merchandise inventory.
$69,200 = $15,600 + purchases - $28,800
Purchases = $82,400
Answer:
$103,000
Explanation:
W-2 taxable income = gross salary - employee contributions to 401-K - flexible spending account savings - health insurance paid by employee
W-2 taxable income = $120,000 - $12,000 - $2,000 - $3,000 = $103,000
Form W-2 records all the employee's taxable income including wages, salary, tips, bonuses, and other taxable compensation. It also includes all the deductibles that employees can make including 401-K contributions, health premiums and flexible spending accounts.
