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Vika [28.1K]
3 years ago
10

Henderson's is an all-equity firm that has 135,000 shares of stock outstanding. Neal, the financial vice-president, is consideri

ng borrowing $220,000 at 7.25 percent interest to repurchase 20,000 shares. Ignoring taxes, what is the value of the firm?
Business
1 answer:
Volgvan3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The value of the firm is $1,485,000

Explanation:

For computing the value of the firm, first, we have to compute the price per share which equals to

= Borrowed amount ÷ repurchase shares

= $220,000 ÷ 20,000

= $11 per share

Now, the value of the firm should be computed. The formula is used which is shown below:

= Price per share × Number of outstanding shares

= $11 × 135,000 shares

= $1,485,000

Hence, the value of the firm is $1,485,000

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Assume that sales are predicted to be $4,000, the expected contribution margin is $1,720, and a net loss of $280 is anticipated.
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

e)  $4,651

Explanation:

The break-even point is the level of activity that a company must operate to have its total cost equal to its total revenue. At this level of activity, the business makes a zero profit, as the total contribution is exactly the same as the total fixed cost.

It is important for the business to have an idea of the number of customers or units of product to sell inorder for it to cover its total fixed cost. This is the information the break-point analysis seeks to provide.

Working it out

Break-point in sales = Total General fixed cost/ Contribution margin ratio

Contribution margin ratio (CMR): Contribution is sales less variable costs. And the contribution margin ratio is the proportion of sales that is earned as contribution. The higher the better.

CMR = contribution/sales

Fixed cost = Contribution + net loss

We can now apply all these relationships to the question given:

Fixed cost = 1720 + 280

                 = 4,000

Contribution margin ratio = 1720/400 = 43%

Break-even sales ($) = 4000/0.43

                                        = $4,651

3 0
3 years ago
The Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) is a tool for licensees; which statement below is correct about the CMA
Molodets [167]

Option D is correct.  A CMA is not an appraisal and should not be advertised as one.

<h3>What is a comparative market analysis?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the market analysis that may

be done by the real estate agents.

The goal is to analyze and find out the existing prices in the market by the available listings and previous listings of properties. The reason why the real estate agencies carry out the CMA is to determine the right prices for home sellers to sell their homes.

On the other hand, the purpose is to enable the buyers of these homes to buy the properties at the best possible prices.

Complete question

The Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) is a tool for licensees; which statement below is correct about the CMA?

A) The CMA is the same as an appraisal

B) A CMA is an estimate of value and an appraisal is exact value

C) A CMA and an appraisal must both conform to USPAP standards

D) A CMA is not an appraisal - and should not be advertised as one

Read more on market analysis here;brainly.com/question/17246850

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Gillie, Taft, and Dall are partners in an accounting firm. The partnership agreement is silent about the payment of salaries and
devlian [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

The partnership agreement is silent about the payment of salaries and the division of profits and losses.

Profits should be divided based on capital invested by each

The capital investment by Gillie, Taft and Dall is 60000 : 120000 : 60000 Distribution has to be in ratio of 1:2:1

Total profits are 120,000, 1:2:1 ratio

The distribution will be Gillie $30,000, Taft $60,000 and Dall $30,000.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What earns interest and allows unlimited ATM use
Vesna [10]
Interest-bearing checking account.
3 0
2 years ago
J. Morgan and M. Halsted are partners who share income and loss in a 3:1 ratio. After several unprofitable periods, the two part
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

cash   110,000 debit

  land                   100,000 credit

  gain at disposal  10,000 credit

--to reocrd teh sale of land--

accounts payable 80,000 debit

               cash               80,000 credit

--to record the payment of liabilities--

gain at disposal 10,000 debit

                Morgan           7,500 credit

                Halsted          2,500 credit

--to distribute the gain from sale--

Morgan 22,500

Haslted    7,500

   Cash                30,000

--to liquidate the partnership--

Explanation:

ratio 3:1 (3+1=4)

Morgan  15000 share of 3/4 = 75%

Halsted   5000 share of 1/4 = 25%

there is gain of 10,000 in the sale distribute as follow

Morgan 10,000 x 75% =  7,500

Halsted 10,000 x 75% =   2,500

Now we close the account against cash

8 0
3 years ago
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