Yes,the answer is 0. hope it helps
Since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, hence the function f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
<h3>Inverse of functions</h3>
In order to determine if the function f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other, the composite function f(g(x)) = g(f(x))
Given the function
f(x)= 5-3x/2 and
g(x)= 5-2x/3
f(g(x)) = f(5-2x/3)
Substitute
f(g(x)) = 5-3(5-2x)/3)/2
f(g(x)) = (5-5+2x)/2
f(g(x)) = 2x/2
f(g(x)) = x
Similarly
g(f(x)) = 5-2(5-3x/2)/3
g(f(x)) = 5-5+3x/3
g(f(x)) = 3x/3
g(f(x)) =x
Since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, hence the function f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
Learn more on inverse of a function here: brainly.com/question/19859934
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3x32=96
96x6=576
I think it says 32 if not the just change it to what it does say
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
it's not necessary to round to the nearest tenth just simply half 10
