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KonstantinChe [14]
3 years ago
10

Plrase help ya'll I am going to rip my hair out i'm overthinking

Mathematics
2 answers:
lorasvet [3.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

jk+kl=kl

15+16=31

mark it as brainliest!!!

vesna_86 [32]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 31

Step-by-step explanation:

add the 2 lengths of the given parts.

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mart [117]
The building blocks of proteins are amino acids.
8 0
3 years ago
How do you simplify this expression
raketka [301]
Convert <span>6\frac{3}{8}<span>6<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​3</span><span>​​</span></span></span></span><span> to improper fraction. Use this rule: </span><span>a \frac{b}{c}=\frac{ac+b}{c}<span>a<span><span>​c</span>​<span>​b</span><span>​​</span></span>=<span><span>​c</span>​<span>​<span>ac+b</span></span>​​:</span></span></span>
​∣8<span><span>​<span>​<span>6×8+3</span></span><span>​​</span></span>−2∣+∣−8<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​5</span><span>​​</span></span>−1<span>∣


</span></span>Simplify <span>6\times 8<span>6×8</span></span><span> to </span>48: <span><span><span><span><span>
​</span>8</span>​<span>​<span>48+3</span></span><span>​​</span></span>−2∣+∣−8<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​5</span><span>​​</span></span>−1∣


</span>Simplify <span>48+3<span>48+3</span></span><span> to </span>51:</span><span><span><span><span><span>
​</span>8</span>​<span>​<span>51</span></span><span>​​</span></span>−2∣+∣−8<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​5</span><span>​​</span></span>−1∣

</span> Make the denominators the same:
<span><span><span>51</span><span>​​/8</span></span>−2×<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​8</span><span>​​

</span></span></span><span>Simplify. Denominators are now the same:
</span>
<span><span><span>51</span><span>​​/8</span></span>−<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​<span>16</span></span><span>​​
</span>
</span></span>Join the denominators: \frac{51-16}{8}<span><span>​8</span>​<span>​<span>51−16</span></span><span>​​
</span>
etc.. and your answer will be 14

</span></span>
3 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me??
Elodia [21]
The first one is additive
the second one is additive
the third one is multiplicative
the last one is multiplicative
4 0
3 years ago
In the diagram, HGF is a straight line. Given EF = 4 cm and HG = GF = 3 cm, find :
Alecsey [184]
If HG and GF are both 3, then the whole length of the base is 6. The tan ratio is the side opposite the reference angle (length 4) over the side adjacent to the angle (length 6), which for us looks like this:
tan(x)= \frac{4}{6} = \frac{2}{3}=.6666667
Now use the inverse tan button (2nd-->tan) to get
tan^{-1} (.66667)=33.69
As far as the sin y goes, you have to use the Law of Sines because you are not working with a right triangle in that case.  I mean you are as far as having to find out what the hypotenuses are triangle EFH and triangle EFG.  The hypotenuse in triangle EFH is 7.211, and the hypotenuse in triangle EFG is 5. Using the Law of Sines to solve for y, you get this:
\frac{siny}{7.211} = \frac{sin33.69}{5}
Solving for y and using the inverse sin gives you that y = 53.12
If you are not familiar with setting up the Law of Sines, nothing I could tell you here would help. If you are familiar, then you get the idea of where the numbers came from and why they are set up that way. Hope that helps. That second part was quite hard.

7 0
3 years ago
Do this and help please
natka813 [3]

Answer 980.806

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope I helped you!!!

6 0
3 years ago
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