What is the missing reason for line 5 in this proof

yawa3891 [41]

The number 50 is significant because, as shown by the line, it is the y-intercept. With 50 being the y-intercept, that means that when the price of TV equals 0, the number of TV's sold equals 50.

The correct answer is C. It is the initial value of the Line of Best Fit.

Hope this helps!! :)

5 0

4 years ago

Can someone please help me

pav-90 [236]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

First we get the same denominator by finding a common multiple.

20 is the lowest common multiple so let's use that.

9/10 will have to change so that the denominator is 20.

From 10 to 20 we have multiplemultiplied it by 2 so we will do the same to the numerator.

9 × 2 = 18.

The fraction is now 18/20.

Now 3/4 – we will get to 20 by multiplying by 5.

3 × 5 = 15

Now we can compare

18/20 and 15/20

9/10 and 3/4

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Is 80, 150, 170 a pythagorean triple?

umka21 [38]

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

80² + 150² = 170²

6400 + 22500 = 28900

28900 = 28900

3 0

3 years ago

A corporation randomly selects 150 salespeople and finds that 66% who have never taken a self- improvement course would like to

Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

We conclude that there is no difference in the two population proportions using α = 0.05.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a corporation randomly selects 150 salespeople and finds that 66% who have never taken a self- improvement course would like to do so.

The firm did a similar study 10 years ago and found that 70% of a random sample of 160 salespeople wanted a self-improvement course.

Let $p_1 (\pi_1)$ = true proportion of workers who would like to attend a self-improvement course in the recent study.

$p_2 (\pi_2)$ = true proportion of workers who would like to attend a self-improvement course in the past study.

SO, Null Hypothesis, $H_0$ : $p_1=p_2$ {means that there is no difference in the two population proportions}

Alternate Hypothesis, $H_A$ : $p_1\neq p_2$ {means that there is a difference in the two population proportions}

The test statistics that would be used here Two-sample z test for proportions;

T.S. = $\frac{(\hat p_1-\hat p_2)-(p_1-p_2)}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p_1(1-\hat p_1)}{n_1}+\frac{\hat p_2(1-\hat p_2)}{n_2} } }$ ~ N(0,1)

where, $\hat p_1$ = sample proportion of salespeople who would like to attend a self-improvement course in recent study = 66%

$\hat p_2$ = sample proportion of salespeople who would like to attend a self-improvement course in past study = 70%

$n_1$ = sample of salespeople in recent study = 150

$n_2$ = sample of salespeople in past study = 160

So, the test statistics = $\frac{(0.66-0.70)-(0)}{\sqrt{\frac{0.66(1-0.66)}{150}+\frac{0.70(1-0.70)}{160} } }$

= -0.755

The value of z test statistics is -0.755.

Now, at 0.05 significance level the z table gives critical values of -1.96 and 1.96 for two-tailed test.

Since our test statistic lies within the range of critical values of z, so we have insufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis as it will not fall in the rejection region due to which we fail to reject our null hypothesis.

Therefore, we conclude that there is no difference in the two population proportions.

5 0

3 years ago

What is the answer pls hurry!!

Mkey [24]

Answer:

the answer is 16.3452

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope it was helpful

5 0

3 years ago