Answer:
Loss is Rs. 78
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution:
Given,
- Cost Price (CP)= Rs.1560
- Loss Percent (L%) = 5%
Here,
L%= L/CP ×100%
or,. 5 =L/1560×100
or,. 5×1560/100 =L
or,. L= Rs.78
Therefore, Loss is Rs.78
$70.88
x/67.5=5/100
cross multiply
100x=337.5
divide 100
x=3.375 or 3.38
67.50+3.38= 70.88
<h3>2/5 is your answer. </h3><h3>▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓▓</h3>
☞ First, 0.40 is the same as 40/100.
But we are not done.
<u>Now, doing this you need to find the GCF (Greatest common factor) of 40, 100.</u>
2 x 2 x 5 = 20.
☞ So our GCF is 20.
Divide both the numerator and the denominator by the GCF.
40 ÷ 20 / 100 ÷ 20.
<h2>Simplify to get ☞ 2/5.</h2><h2>▬▬ι══════════════ι▬▬</h2>
Best of luck on your assignment!
▬▬ι══════════════ι▬▬
- Emacathy | Top Answerer ♫♪.ılılıll|̲̅̅●̲̅̅|̲̅̅=̲̅̅|̲̅̅●̲̅̅|llılılı.♫♪
<h2 />
C) it is a closed figure made up of straight lines.
For any probability the formula is

. In this case we have 4 desired outcomes (the odds, 1, 3 and 5, and also 6) out of 6 total sides, so our probability

.
Mutually exclusive means the events cant occur at the same time. In our case it is not possible to roll both a 6 and an odd number at the same time since 6 is even. Therefore the events ARE mutually exclusive.
Combine the two parts and C is the correct answer. <span />