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3 years ago

Emotions are perceived exactly the same way by all people. a. True b. False

Mathematics

2 answers:

AlexFokin [52]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

false.......

Step-by-step explanation:

iris [78.8K]3 years ago

5 0

The correct answer is B. False. Every individual person perceives emotions differently and reacts to them differently meaning that there is no objective way to determine their strength. That's why crying is not a measure for sadness nor is laughing a measure for happiness and both can easily be simulated, or a person can be extremely sad yet not cry at all.

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A bed is 2400 a discount of 25% was given on the

Brrunno [24]

Answer:

800

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: The selling price of bed is 2400.

Discount offered is 25%

Lets assume the cost of bed be "x"

Discount offered on the cost price of bed= $\frac{25}{100} \times x= 0.25x$

∴ Discount offered on the cost price of bed= 0.25x

We know the selling price of bed after discount provided.

Finding the cost price of the bed.

⇒ $x-0.25x= 2400$

⇒ $0.75x= 2400$

cross multiplying both side.

∴ $x= \frac{2400}{0.75} = 3200$

∴ Cost price of the bed is 3200.

We know selling price of the bed is 2400.

Now, finding the saving.

Saving on the price of bed= Cost price- selling price

Saving= $3200-2400= 800$

Hence, saving on the purchase of the bed is 800.

7 0

3 years ago

A random sample of 12 supermarkets from Region 1 had mean sales of 84 with a standard deviation of 6.6. A random sample of 17 su

Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

We conclude that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a random sample of 12 supermarkets from Region 1 had mean sales of 84 with a standard deviation of 6.6.

A random sample of 17 supermarkets from Region 2 had a mean sales of 78.3 with a standard deviation of 8.5.

Let $\mu_1$ = mean sales per market in Region 1.

$\mu_2$ = mean sales per market in Region 2.

So, Null Hypothesis, $H_0$ : $\mu_1-\mu_2$ = 0 {means that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2}

Alternate Hypothesis, $H_A$ : > $\mu_1-\mu_2\neq$ 0 {means that there is a difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2}

The test statistics that will be used here is Two-sample t-test statistics because we don't know about population standard deviations;

T.S. = $\frac{(\bar X_1 -\bar X_2)-(\mu_1-\mu_2)}{s_p \times \sqrt{\frac{1}{n_1}+ {\frac{1}{n_2}}} }$ ~ $t__n_1_+_n_2_-_2$

where, $\bar X_1$ = sample mean sales in Region 1 = 84

$\bar X_2$ = sample mean sales in Region 2 = 78.3

$s_1$ = sample standard deviation of sales in Region 1 = 6.6

$s_2$ = sample standard deviation of sales in Region 2 = 8.5

$n_1$ = sample of supermarkets from Region 1 = 12

$n_2$ = sample of supermarkets from Region 2 = 17

Also, $s_p=\sqrt{\frac{(n_1-1)\times s_1^{2}+(n_2-1)\times s_2^{2} }{n_1+n_2-2} }$ = $s_p=\sqrt{\frac{(12-1)\times 6.6^{2}+(17-1)\times 8.5^{2} }{12+17-2} }$ = 7.782

So, the test statistics = $\frac{(84-78.3)-(0)}{7.782 \times \sqrt{\frac{1}{12}+ {\frac{1}{17}}} }$ ~ $t_2_7$

= 1.943

The value of t-test statistics is 1.943.

Now, at a 0.02 level of significance, the t table gives a critical value of -2.472 and 2.473 at 27 degrees of freedom for the two-tailed test.

Since the value of our test statistics lies within the range of critical values of t, so we have insufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis as it will not fall in the rejection region.

Therefore, we conclude that there is no difference in potential mean sales per market in Region 1 and 2.

6 0

3 years ago

Please help this is the easiest question ever.

Elodia [21]

The answer to this question is 22

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

1000 to the fourth power(?

Alik [6]

Answer: