the correct answer would be to determine the article with the strongest supporting evidence.
i ha this question on brainly before.
Answer:
The “push” factors for the exodus were poor economic conditions in the South—exacerbated by the limitations of sharecropping, farm failures, and crop damage from the boll weevil—as well as ongoing racial oppression in the form of Jim Crow laws.
Bacon served as attorney general and Lord Chancellor of England, resigning amid charges of corruption. His more valuable work was philosophical. Bacon took up Aristotelian ideas, arguing for an empirical, inductive approach, known as the scientific method, which is the foundation of modern scientific inquiry.Apr 2, 2014
Answer:
serfdom, condition in medieval Europe in which a tenant farmer was bound to a hereditary plot of land and to the will of his landlord. The vast majority of serfs in medieval Europe obtained their subsistence by cultivating a plot of land that was owned by a lord. This was the essential feature differentiating serfs from slaves, who were bought and sold without reference to a plot of land. The serf provided his own food and clothing from his own productive efforts. A substantial proportion of the grain the serf grew on his holding had to be given to his lord. The lord could also compel the serf to cultivate that portion of the lord’s land that was not held by other tenants (called demesne land). The serf also had to use his lord’s grain mills and no others.
Explanation:
https://www.britannica.com/topic/serfdom
One thing you have to be clear about is which war. I'm taking it to be WWI.
There was a cash crunch after WWI. France was not any kind of a problem with the United States. It's not B.
I better get to the point. It has to do with the fact that the United States couldn't sell an abundance of manufactured goods. A has to do with that, but it wasn't exactly a decline in the manufacturing industry. It was that she couldn't sell what she had in inventory.
Inflation didn't become a problem in a post WWI environment. In fact, the problem was deflation and unemployment in the 30s, but that is a decade away from this question.
This is one of those questions that a guess is as good as an answer. Britain didn't import which is the same thing as a trade imbalance. I would pick E but I think that D is very possible. They are both worded the wrong way.There was a drop off in American Exports. And Farm prices cratered. Does that mean that Americans were buying more British goods. It is not D if America couldn't sell anything to Britain.
That makes E true. I'd pick E, but there's lots of reasons to pick almost anything else except B.
