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Lena [83]
3 years ago
5

Show Me How On February 22, Stewart Corporation acquired 12,000 shares of the 400,000 outstanding shares of Edwards Co. common s

tock at $50 plus commission charges of $120. On June 1, a cash dividend of $1.40 per share was received. On November 12, 4,000 shares were sold at $62 less commission charges of $100.Using the cost method, journalize the entries for (a) the purchase of stock, (b) the receipt of dividends, and (c) the sale of 4,000 shares.
Business
1 answer:
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1.  Investment in shares of Edwards Co A/c Dr $600,120

              To Cash A/c                                                              $600,120

(Being the purchase of stock is made)

The investment is computed below:

= Number of shares acquired × par value of common stock + commission charges

= 12,000 shares × $50 + $120

= $600,120

2. Cash A/c Dr $16,800

         To Dividend A/c $16,800

(Being dividend received is recorded)

The receipt of dividend is shown below:

=  Number of shares × cash dividend per share

= 12,000 shares × $1.40

= $16,800

3.  Cash A/c Dr $247,900

             To Profit on sale $47,860

             To Investment in shares of Edwards Co A/c $200,040

(Being sale of shares is recorded and the remaining amount is credited to the profit)

The computation of this above entry is shown below:

Cash Account = Number of shares sold  × par value of common stock - commission charges

= $4,000 × $62 - $100

= $247,900

Profit on sale = (Purchase of stock ÷  Number of shares acquired) × Number of shares sold

= ($600,120 ÷ 12,000) shares × 4,000 shares

= $200,040

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Dee Trader opens a brokerage account and purchases 300 shares of Internet Dreams at $40 per share. She borrows$4,000from her bro
levacccp [35]

Answer:

A. The stock is purchased for $40 x 300 shares = $12,000.

Given that the amount borrowed from the broker is $4,000, Dee's margin is the initial purchase price net borrowing: $12,000 - $4,000 = $8,000.

B. If the share price falls to $30, then the value of the stock falls to $9,000. By the end of the year, the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to:

Principal x (1 + Interest rate) = $4,000 x (1 + 0.08) = $4,320.

The value of the stock falls to: $30 x 300 shares = $9,000.

The remaining margin in the investor's account is:

Margin on long position = "Equity in account " /"Value of stock"

= "$9,000 - $4,320" /"$9,000" = 0.52 = 52%

Therefore, the investor will not receive a margin call.

C. Rate of return = "Ending equity in account - Initial equity in account" /"Initial equity in account"

= "$4,680 - $8,000" /"$8,000" = - 0.4150 = - 41.50%

7 0
3 years ago
When an employee misappropriates case by diverting a payment from one customer for their own use, and then hides the defalcation
Sati [7]

Answer:

Lapping scheme

Explanation:

Lapping scheme -

It is a fraud practice , which involves the alteration of the accounts received to hide or cover the stolen payments .

This method involve taking the subsequent receivable payments and using them to cover the theft .

<u>And the next receivable is only applied when the previous is unpaid receivable .</u>

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3 years ago
Final Exam Review Explain the Risk Management Process (4 tasks) and explain the 4 ways to respond to risk and provide an example
alex41 [277]

Identification, evaluation, and control of financial, legal, strategic, and security threats to an organization's assets and profits are done through risk management.

<h3>What is the risk management process?</h3>

A strategy for evaluating risks and opportunities, how they could impact a project or organization, and how to deal with them is known as the risk management process.

The 4 essential steps of the Risk Management Process are:

Identify the risk: Finding all the occurrences that could potentially have a negative (risk) or good (opportunity) impact on the project's goals is the first stage in the risk management process.

Assess the risk: Assessments of risk and opportunity might be qualitative or quantitative. Based on the likelihood and significance of the event, a qualitative assessment examines the level of criticality. In a quantitative analysis, the event's financial impact or benefit are examined.

Risk treatment: An organization must first prepare a treatment plan that details its strategy for managing hazards. The goal of the risk treatment strategy is to lessen the likelihood that the risk will materialize (preventive action) and/or to lessen the impact of the risk (mitigation action). The goal of a treatment plan for an opportunity is to boost the chance that it will materialize and/or to boost its advantages. A response strategy is established for the project based on the type of risk or opportunity.

Monitor and Report on the risk: It is important to monitor and report on risks, opportunities, and their management strategies. The severity of the risk or opportunity will determine how frequently this occurs. Creating a monitoring and reporting framework will guarantee that the right venues for escalation exist and that the right risk responses are being implemented.

<h3>What are the four ways to respond to risk?</h3>

Risk reduction

This method typically entails creating a different plan of action with a higher chance of success but a larger price tag.

A project team can minimize the danger of working with a new supplier whose reliability is unknown by selecting a supplier with a track record instead of a new provider who provides considerable price incentives.

Accepting and sharing risks

This strategy entails taking the risk and working with others to share accountability for risky behaviors.

By creating a joint venture with a business established in a particular country, for instance, many companies working on foreign projects will lower the political, legal, and employment risks connected with overseas ventures.

Risk mitigation

Risk mitigation entails making an investment to lower the risk associated with a project.

For instance, businesses frequently purchase a fixed exchange rate while working on overseas projects to lessen the risk posed by exchange rate swings.

Risk transfer

Risk transfer is a risk management technique that transfers project risk to a third party.

The purchase of insurance is a well-known example of risk transfer. The insurance provider assumes the risk instead of the project.

Learn more about risk management here:

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3 0
1 year ago
Monty Company reports the following financial information before adjustments. Dr. Cr. Accounts Receivable $132,800 Allowance for
creativ13 [48]

Answer: The following journal entries apply:

a) Debit Bad debt expense                                    $32,727.6  

  Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts            $32,727.6

b) Debit Bad debt expense                                    $37,017.6  

  Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts            $37,017.6

Explanation: All the sales revenue are on credit to the tune of $806,700, however, there was sales return and allowance of $51,060, which has to be deducted from credit sales to arrive at the net credit sales of $755,640. This amount would be added to the accounts receivable of $132,800 to arrive at the total accounts receivable of $888,440.

a) 4% of $888,440 is $35,537.6. With credit balance of $2,810 in allowance for doubtful accounts, bad debt expense (addition) is $32,727.6  ($35,537.6 - $2,810).

b) 4% of $888,440 is $35,537.6 and there is a debit balance of $1,480 in allowance for doubtful accounts, bad debt expense (to reinstate allowance account to $35,537.6) is $37,017.6 ($35,537.6 + $1,480).

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3 years ago
What is dumping?
pychu [463]
Dumping is exporting goods at prices that are lower than their value.
4 0
3 years ago
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