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Alexeev081 [22]
3 years ago
8

Let λ > 0 be a constant. Consider the function f(x) = (λ/2)e^(−λ|x|) , for − [infinity] < x < [infinity] . (a) Is f(x)

a pdf? Why? (b) If your answer is "yes" for part (a), find the corresponding µ and σ^2 (as simple functions of λ). If your answer is "no" for part (a), find the integral (from -[infinity] to [infinity]) of xf(x)dx and the integral(from -[infinity] to [infinity]) of x^2f(x)dx (as simple functions of λ).
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mekhanik [1.2K]3 years ago
4 0

a. In order for f to be a PDF, f needs to be non-negative (it is) and the integral over its support must evaluate to 1. f is symmetric about x=0, i.e. even, so

\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac\lambda2e^{-\lambda|x|}\,\mathrm dx=\lambda\int_0^\infty e^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx=-e^{-\lambda x}\bigg|_0^\infty=1

and so f is indeed a PDF.

b. Let X be a random variable with f as its PDF. Then

\mu=E[X]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf(x)\,\mathrm dx=\frac\lambda2\int_{-\infty}^\infty xe^{-\lambda|x|}\,\mathrm dx

The integrand is odd, so the integral vanishes and the mean is \boxed{\mu=0}.

The variance of X is

\sigma^2=E[(X-E[X])^2]=E[X^2]-E[X]^2

The second moment is

E[X^2]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^2f(x)\,\mathrm dx

This integrand is even, so

E[X^2]=\displaystyle2\int_0^\infty x^2f(x)\,\mathrm dx=\lambda\int_0^\infty x^2e^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx

Integrate by parts, taking

u=x^2\implies\mathrm du=2x\,\mathrm dx

\mathrm dv=e^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx\implies v=-\dfrac{e^{-\lambda x}}\lambda

so that

\displaystyle E[X^2]=\lambda\left(-\frac{x^2e^{-\lambda x}}\lambda\bigg|_0^\infty+2\int_0^\infty\frac{xe^{-\lambda x}}\lambda\,\mathrm dx\right)=2\int_0^\infty xe^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx

Integrate by parts again, this time with

u=x\implies\mathrm du=\mathrm dx

\mathrm dv=e^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx\implies v=-\dfrac{e^{-\lambda x}}\lambda

\displaystyle E[X^2]=2\left(-\frac{xe^{-\lambda x}}\lambda\bigg|_0^\infty+\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{-\lambda x}}\lambda\,\mathrm dx\right)=\frac2\lambda\int_0^\infty e^{-\lambda x}\,\mathrm dx=-\frac2{\lambda^2}e^{-\lambda x}\bigg|_0^\infty=\frac2{\lambda^2}

and so the variance is \boxed{\sigma^2=\frac2{\lambda^2}}.

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Answer:

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292

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3 years ago
For the spinner above, the probability of landing on black is 1/2, and the probability of landing on red is 1/3. Suppose it is s
saul85 [17]

Answer:

d) The probability spinner will land on black all three times is 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on black = 1/2

The probability of landing on red    =  1/3.

Now, if the spinner is spun 3 times.

The probability  it will land on black all three times  

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3 years ago
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frosja888 [35]

Answer:

A=r×r

64=r×rبالجذر

r=8

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