Who was not consulted about the pertitioning of the Ottoman Empire

History

1 answer:

Svet_ta [14]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The partition of the Ottoman Empire (Armistice of Mudros, 30 October 1918 – Abolition of the Ottoman Sultanate, 1 November 1922) was a political event that occurred after World War I and the occupation of Constantinople by British, French and Italian troops in November 1918. The partitioning was planned in several agreements made by the Allied Powers early in the course of World War I,[1] notably the Sykes-Picot Agreement. As world war loomed, the Ottoman Empire sought protection but was rejected by Britain, France, and Russia, and finally formed the Ottoman–German Alliance.[2] The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples that formerly comprised the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new states.[3] The Ottoman Empire had been the leading Islamic state in geopolitical, cultural and ideological terms. The partitioning of the Ottoman Empire after the war led to the rise in the Middle East of Western powers such as Britain and France and brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. Resistance to the influence of these powers came from the Turkish national movement but did not become widespread in the post-Ottoman states until after World War II.

Explanation:

You might be interested in

During the mid-17th century, an English shoemaker named _________ founded the Religious Society of Friends, which became known a

erastovalidia [21]

I think the answer is c

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What right's did Egyptian women retain after they were married?

BigorU [14]

<span>Ancient Egyptian women had nearly the same legal rights as men. They were able to acquire, own, and dispose of real and personal property in their own name. They could enter into contracts, initiate civil court cases, and be sued.</span>

8 0

2 years ago

Explain the Non-cooperation Movement-

morpeh [17]

⛄ANSWER♡࿐⛄

The non-cooperation movement was a political campaign launched on 4 September 1920, by Mahatma Gandhi to have Indians revoke their cooperation from the British government, with the aim of inducing the British to grant self-governance and full independence (Purna Swaraj) to India.

This came as result of the Indian National Congress (INC) withdrawing its support for British reforms following the Rowlatt Act of 18 March 1919—which suspended the rights of political prisoners in sedition trials, and was seen as a "political awakening" by Indians and as a "threat" by the British hand the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 13 April 1919.

<h2> $\mathscr \fcolorbox{blue}{gray}{BE \: BRAINLY}$ </h2>

8 0

2 years ago

Help!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Andrews [41]

Answer:

eliminating tariffs help to lead to trade creation. And this helps because it makes items cheaper for consumers

Explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

The term "divine right" is MOST closely related to which of these types of government?

Alona [7]

B, it states in the definition that “god only gave them the right to rule”. It shows clear dictatorship.

3 0

2 years ago