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nataly862011 [7]
3 years ago
14

Consider a monopolist facing a linear demand curve. Assume the marginal cost of production is constant. This would be true wheth

er the industry is served by a monopolist or by a number of competitive firms. Suppose you know that the monopoly is inefficient because it produces 200 fewer units than what would be produced if the market is competitive. The monopoly quantity must be:_________
Business
1 answer:
stira [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

200 units

Explanation:

Perfect Competition are many firms selling similar products at same prices. So, constant prices imply that their marginal revenue = average revenue = price.

Monopoly is single seller of products. Their MR curve is below their AR curve. And, it is also twice steeper than AR (demand) curve, because it has double slope then that.

So, perfect competition is at equilibrium where MC = (MR = AR = P). However monopoly's optimum output is where MR = MC, & the optimal price is found by corresponding point at higher AR (demand) curve.

Given that MC curve is constant : Monopoly's output will be half  perfect competition output, as per above explanation. So, if monopoly is producing 200 less than perfect competitive output. Being it half the perfect competition output, it could be producing output = 200 currently.

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Using Statement of Cash Flows Information to Assess Company Life-Cycle Stage
yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

                     Operating         Investing          Financing     Cycle

                          3751                (2404)               1381          Growth      

                          1102                 2054                (759)          Maturity

                          20                    (480)                 926            Growth

                        (2580)               (4200)              7508           Introduction

                         (409)                 5581                (2356)         Declining

                         2281                 (3451)               1957             Growth  

                         6385                 3272                (1958)         Maturity  

                         (365)                (1678)               (3478)         Declining

In the introduction phase , cash flow from the operating and investing activities are negative as the company generate cash for investment through financing activities for operation

In the growth phase , the activities begin to pay off gradually while investing is still on simultaneously as operating activities generate a positive cash flow  , investing negative and finance positive

In the maturity phase , company start to pay offset debt and buy back the stock as the business appears stable. Operating and financing activities generate a positive cash flow and financing negative.

In declining stage ,sales begin to fall and operating activities nosedive , investing may be positive as assets are being sold off and financing activities negative.

               

5 0
3 years ago
If you were arrested with no explanation, what would your friends and family assume you had done?
belka [17]
They would think u ran a red light or u prob Rob a bank,Jew store,ect.
3 0
4 years ago
The most recent financial statements for Hornick, Inc., are shown here (assuming no income taxes): Income Statement Balance Shee
iren2701 [21]

Answer:

The external financing needed is $248.50

Explanation:

For computing the external financing needed, first we have to find out the increase percentage of sales which is shown below:

As the given sales is $8,300 and projected sales is $9,545

So, the increase in percentage = (Projected sales - given sales) ÷ given sales × 100

= ($9,545 - $8,300) ÷ 8,300 × 100

= 15%

Now the projected net income equals to

= Projected sales - projected cost

= $9,545 - $6,313.50

= $3,231.50

The projected cost is computed below

= Cost + (cost × increase in percentage of sales)

= ($5,490 + $5,490 × 15%)

= $6,313.50

It is given that the assets and costs are proportional to sales,

So, the new asset value is = Assets + Assets × increase percentage of sales

= $23,200 + $23,200 × 15%

= $23,200 + $3,480

= $26,680

And, the equity value = Equity + net income

                                   = $14,200 + $3,231.50

                                   = $17,431.50

Plus, the debt is $9,000

The liabilities side = $17,431.50 + $9,000 = $26,431.50

So, the difference would be

= Asset - Liabilities

= $26,680 - $26,431.50

= $248.50

8 0
3 years ago
Police officers often use ________ To get information from their witnesses
DaniilM [7]
The answer to your question is A
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

The terms of 2/10, net 30 implies that the firm is entitled to receive a 2 percent discount if it makes payment within 10 days for the goods it bought on term but the seller expects to pay full amount of the amount due in 30 days if it fails to pay within 10 days.

However, since there will be no more discount after the discount period, the cost of trade credit will continue to fall longer the payment is extended. For this question this can be demonstrated using the formula for calculating the cost of trade discount as follows:

Cost of trade discount = {[1 + (discount rate / (1 - discount rate))]^(365/days after discount)} - 1 ................... (1)

We can now applying equation (1) as follows:

<u>For payment in 40 days </u>

Cost of trade credit (payment in 40 days)= {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/40)} - 1 = 0.202436246672765, or 20%

<u>For payment in 30 days </u>

Cost of trade credit (payment in 30 days) = {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/30)} - 1 = 0.278643315029666, or 28%

<u></u>

<u>Conclusion</u>

Since the 20% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 40 days is lower than 28% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 30 days, the <u>correct option is A. True</u>. That is, the calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the firm plans to pay in 40 days than in 30 days.

4 0
3 years ago
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