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fredd [130]
3 years ago
7

The calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the

firm plans to pay in 40 days than in 30 days.
A. True
B. False
Business
1 answer:
ANTONII [103]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

The terms of 2/10, net 30 implies that the firm is entitled to receive a 2 percent discount if it makes payment within 10 days for the goods it bought on term but the seller expects to pay full amount of the amount due in 30 days if it fails to pay within 10 days.

However, since there will be no more discount after the discount period, the cost of trade credit will continue to fall longer the payment is extended. For this question this can be demonstrated using the formula for calculating the cost of trade discount as follows:

Cost of trade discount = {[1 + (discount rate / (1 - discount rate))]^(365/days after discount)} - 1 ................... (1)

We can now applying equation (1) as follows:

<u>For payment in 40 days </u>

Cost of trade credit (payment in 40 days)= {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/40)} - 1 = 0.202436246672765, or 20%

<u>For payment in 30 days </u>

Cost of trade credit (payment in 30 days) = {[1 + (0.02 / (1 - 0.02))]^(365/30)} - 1 = 0.278643315029666, or 28%

<u></u>

<u>Conclusion</u>

Since the 20% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 40 days is lower than 28% calculated cost of trade credit for payment in 30 days, the <u>correct option is A. True</u>. That is, the calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the firm plans to pay in 40 days than in 30 days.

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