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mariarad [96]
3 years ago
9

What is the purpose of the Preamble to the Constitution?

History
2 answers:
Korvikt [17]3 years ago
6 0
The correct answer is B because that is a line in the actual Preamble.
densk [106]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

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Answer: A.) Police Violence

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3 years ago
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Why did the roman monarchy fall?
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When the Etruscan rule weakened, the Romans rebelled, driving the Etruscan kings out of Rome.After the expulsion of the Etruscans, the monarchy became a republic.
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Reasons for the failure of the Dutch Republic include all of the following except:
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Answer:

C.

Explanation: The reason of the downfall of the Dutch Republic can include the costs of the competitition with England for sea hegemony, the attacks from France and the involvemenet of the Republic in different conflicts with other nations.

The participation of the Dutch Republic in all those wars eventually led to a stalemate of the once richest nation of the world, thus, its competitors like France, had a perfect opportunity to invade it.

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I NEED HELP PLEASE !!!
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Dam I’m not sure but if I were to guess I would say 2 or 3. Sorry man.

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3 years ago
List seven laws of human development that Jesus followed .​
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

In the Epistle to the Galatians, written by the Apostle Paul to a number of early Christian communities in the Roman province of Galatia in central Anatolia, he wrote: "Bear one another's burdens, and so fulfill the law of Christ." (Galatians 6:2, NKJV). This phrase appears once and is never defined. It has been suggested that "the law of Christ" could be an allusion to the second greatest commandment ("love thy neighbor") or the New Commandment ("love one another; as I have loved you"). Others suggest this phrase is just another name for "the law of God" as Christians believe the Messiah is God.

Possibly related, in a letter to the early Christians of Corinth, Greece, in the First Epistle to the Corinthians, Paul wrote: "To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God's law but am under Christ's law), so as to win those not having the law." (1 Corinthians 9:21, NIV). In the Greek, the wording is, "to those without law, as without law -- (not being without law to God, but within law to Christ) -- that I might gain those without law." (1 Corinthians 9:21, YLT)

It is not clear exactly what Paul means by the phrase, "the law of Christ". Although Paul mentions Biblical law several times (e.g., Romans 2:12–16, 3:31, 7:12, 8:7–8, Galatians 5:3, Acts 24:14, 25:8) and preached about Ten Commandment topics such as idolatry (e.g., 1 Corinthians 5:11, 6:9–10, 10:7, 10:14, Galatians 5:19–21, Ephesians 5:5, Colossians 3:5, Acts 17:16–21, 19:23–41), he consistently denies that salvation, or justification before God, is based on "works of the law" (e.g., Galatians 3:6–14), though the meaning of this phrase is also disputed by scholars, see for example the New Perspective on Paul#Works of the Law.

8 0
3 years ago
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