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Naya [18.7K]
3 years ago
6

The inverse of a cosine function is the

Mathematics
2 answers:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

cosecant

Step-by-step explanation:

Inverse Cosine

cos-1

Cos-1

arccos

Arccos

The inverse function of cosine.

Basic idea: To find cos-1 (½), we ask "what angle has cosine equal to ½?" The answer is 60°. As a result we say cos-1 (½) = 60°. In radians this is cos-1 (½) = π/3.

More: There are actually many angles that have cosine equal to ½. We are really asking "what is the simplest, most basic angle that has cosine equal to ½?" As before, the answer is 60°. Thus cos-1 (½) = 60° or cos-1 (½) = π/3.

Details: What is cos-1 (–½)? Do we choose 120°, –120°, 240°, or some other angle? The answer is 120°. With inverse cosine, we select the angle on the top half of the unit circle. Thus cos-1 (–½) = 120° or cos-1 (–½) = 2π/3.

In other words, the range of cos-1 is restricted to [0, 180°] or [0, π].

Note: arccos refers to "arc cosine", or the radian measure of the arc on a circle corresponding to a given value of cosine.

Technical note: Since none of the six trig functions sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant, and cotangent are one-to-one, their inverses are not functions. Each trig function can have its domain restricted, however, in order to make its inverse a function. Some mathematicians write these restricted trig functions and their inverses with an initial capital letter (e.g. Cos or Cos-1). However, most mathematicians do not follow this practice. This website does not distinguish between capitalized and uncapitalized trig functions.

 



 

See also

Inverse trigonometry, inverse trig functions, interval notation

antoniya [11.8K]3 years ago
3 0
Cosecant is the answer
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