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Shtirlitz [24]
3 years ago
13

How does the format of a memo differ from that of an e-mail? please answer asap

Business
1 answer:
aivan3 [116]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: <u>Memos omit a closing signature.</u>

<u />

<u>(I took the test and this was the answer)</u>

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The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $
diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0
3 years ago
Which one of the following groups of accounts only have debit balances
scoray [572]

Answer: b. Sales Returns, Wages, Machinery, Discount Allowed

Explanation:

Sales returns reduce the sales made. Sales are put on the credit side so transactions that will reduce sales such as sales returns would have to go on the debit side.

Wages are an expense and expenses are debited to show they are increasing so they have a debit balance.

Machinery is an asset and assets have debit balances.

Discount allowed reduces the sales balance and as mentioned above, transactions that reduce sales go on the debit side so this has a debit balance as well.

4 0
3 years ago
Potential GDP refers to the level of ___________ Select one: a. Nominal GDP in the long run. b. Nominal GDP in the short run. c.
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

c. Real GDP in long run

Explanation:

Potential GDP refers to the level of real GDP in long run.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A new car has a sticker price of $20,950, while the invoice price paid was $18,750. What is the dealer markup?
Greeley [361]
20,950 minus 18750 is 2200 so im guessing the markup is $2200
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Luis consulting started the year with total assets of $60,000 and total liabilities of $17,000. during the year, the business re
BARSIC [14]
Owner's equity at the beginning of the year is
Assets-liabilities
60,000−17,000=43,000

Owner's equity at the end of the year is
Beginning balance+revenues-expenses+additional investment-withdrawal amount
43,000+48,000−36,000
+8,000−9,000
=54,000

Owner's equity changed by
ending balance-beginning balance
54,000−43,000=11,000. ..answer
6 0
4 years ago
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