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murzikaleks [220]
2 years ago
11

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true regarding the selection of a portfolio from those that lie on the capital alloc

ation line? I) Less risk-averse investors will invest more in the risk-free security and less in the optimal risky portfolio than more risk-averse investors. II) More risk-averse investors will invest less in the optimal risky portfolio and more in the risk-free security than less risk-averse investors. III) Investors choose the portfolio that maximizes their expected utility.
Business
1 answer:
Mice21 [21]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:II) More risk-averse investors will invest less in the optimal risky portfolio and more in the risk-free security than less risk-averse investors. III) Investors choose the portfolio that maximizes their expected utility.

Explanation:The capital allocation line is a line created in a graph by investors in an economy to display or identify the potential risks involved in taking risky decisions. This line is one the determining factors to ensure that the investor has adequate knowledge about the risky nature of a capital investment.

Investors generally choose portfolios that guarantee maximum profits with reduced chances of loss. More risk averse investor will choose or opt for less risky portfolio.

You might be interested in
If an agent has, within the scope of the agency relationship, committed both negligent and intentional acts resulting in injury
eduard

Answer:

may be liable for both the negligent and intentional acts.

Explanation:

In the case when an agent is within the scope of agent relationship that committed both type of acts i.e. negligent and intentional that results the injury to the third party so here the principal may be liable for both the act i.e. negligent and intentional as it is followed by the doctrine of respodeat superior

Therefore the second option is correct

7 0
3 years ago
Compute the receivables turnover ratio using the following information:
REY [17]

Answer:

Receivables Turnover Ratio is 4

Explanation:

Computation of Average Receivables

Opening Receivables           $ 40,000

Ending receivables               <u>$ 60,000</u>

                                               $ 100,000

Average receivables            $   50,000

Net Credit Sales                    $ 200,000

The Receivables Turnover ratio is calculated by dividing the Net Credit Sales by the Average Receivables.

Receivables Turnover Ratio = Net Credit Sales / Average Receivables

$ 200,000/ $ 50,000   = 4

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are true if you pay only the minimun amount each month towards your credit card bill?
Roman55 [17]
Is better to pay in full the credit bill so that when you need to help in the long run you can be able to pay and halfway payments
4 0
2 years ago
Suppose the announcement of a new head of the central bank, with a reputation of being soft on inflation, increases expected inf
puteri [66]

Answer:

Nominal interest rate (i)= expected inflation rate (f) + real interest rate (r)

i= 5+r

Explanation:

The Fisher Effect is an economic theory created by economist Irving Fisher that describes the relationship between inflation and both real and nominal interest rates.

The Fisher Effect states that the real interest rate equals the nominal interest rate minus the expected inflation rate.

The Fisher Effect can be seen each time you go to the bank; the interest rate an investor has on a savings account is really the nominal interest rate.

6 0
3 years ago
How much more is a perpetuity of $1,000 worth than an annuity of the same amount for 20 years? Assume an interest rate of 10% an
Veronika [31]

Answer:

The perpetuity is worth $1486.43 more than the ordinary annuity

Explanation:

A perpetuity that with an annual cash inflow or cash outflow payable for a foreseeable future - for an infinite number of period

The present value of a perpetual annuity is calculated as

PV= A/r

PV = 1000/0.1

PV =&10,000

On the other hand, an annuity with  annual cash inflows or cash outflows for certain number of years is called an ordinary annuity.

The present value of an ordinary annuity is determined as follows:

PV = (1 - (1+r)^n)/r   × A

     = (1-(1+0.1)^(-20))/0.1 × 1000

    = 8.5135  × 1000

   = 8513.56

Difference in PV =  10,000 - 8513.56

                            = $1486.43

The perpetuity is worth $ 1,486.43 more than the ordinary annuity

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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