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Gwar [14]
3 years ago
14

On December 1, after making a concerted effort, management determines that it will be unable to collect $1,200 owed to it by one

of its customers. This company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts. Prepare the necessary December 1 journal entry to write off this $1,200 uncollectible account journal entry by selecting the account names from the drop-down menus and entering the dollar amounts in the debit or credit columns.
Business
1 answer:
madam [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Debit Allowance for doubtful debts $1,200

Credit Accounts receivable $1,200

Being entries to write off uncollectible debt on December 1

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Where a debit that had previously been determined to have gone bad gets settled, debit cash and credit bad debt expense.

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On June 1, $50,000 of treasury bonds were purchased between interest dates. The broker commission was $500. The bonds pay intere
timurjin [86]

Answer:

$50,500

Explanation:

The investment treasury bonds account must be debited by $50,500 which includes the face value of the bonds ($50,000) and the broker's commission ($500). Investment accounts only record the purchase price of the bonds, they do not record any accrued interests.

4 0
3 years ago
Based on the given information, what will be the working capital of the company?
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

$37,000

Explanation:

Working capital indicates the difference between a company's current assets and its current liabilities.

Current assets include such as cash at hand, bank balances, cash equivalents, and inventories. Current liabilities are accounts payable, bills, and short term debts.

in this case,

Current assets include

Inventory    $50,000

Cash at Bank    $ 5,000

prepaid rent    <u>  $5,000</u>

Total current assets <u>$60,000</u>

current liabilities

Notes Payable   $20,000

tax payable       <u>   $3,000</u>

Total current liabilities  <u>   $23,000</u>

Working capital

= $60,000 - $23,000

= $37,000

7 0
3 years ago
Ale Corporation had net income of $240,000 and paid dividends to common stockholders of $40,000 in 2017. The weighted average nu
Aneli [31]

Answer:

The price earnings ratio is 19:1

Explanation:

The price earnings ratio tells us that how much price the investors are willing to pay for $1 of earnings provided by the company. The price earnings ratio is calculate by dividing the price per share by the earnings per share.

Price earnings ratio = Price per share / Earnings per share

The price per share is the market price of the stock.

The earnings per share is calculated using the following formula:

Earnings per share = Net Income  /  Weighted average shares outstanding

Earnings per share = 240000 / 60000 = $4 per share

The price earnings ratio = 76 / 4  =  19 / 1   or 19:1

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Bauer Manufacturing uses departmental cost driver rates to allocate manufacturing overhead costs to products. Manufacturing over
Diano4ka-milaya [45]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Manufacturing overhead costs are allocated based on machine-hours in the Machining Department and based on direct labor-hours in the Assembly Department.

Machining:

Machine-hours= 50,000

Manufacturing overhead costs= $ 280,000

Assembly:

Direct labor-hours= 40,000

Manufacturing overhead costs= $ 360,000

First, we need to calculate the estimated overhead rate for each department:

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

<u>Machining:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 280,000/50,000= $5.6 per machine hour

<u>Assembly:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 360,000/40,000= $9 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead to Job 316:

Machining Assembly

Direct labor-hours 120 75

Machine-hours 45 5

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Machining:

Allocated MOH= 5.6*45= $252

Assembly:

Allocated MOH= 9*75= $675

5 0
3 years ago
One disadvantage of the dbms is that it increases the risk of data security breaches.
Andrew [12]
I think this statement is false because instead DBMS actually decreases the security risk of data security breaches. DBMS is a system software for creating and managing data. It is the only way of accessing the data in a database and does not reveal much of the databases internal complexity to the application programs and users.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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