Answer: Planned amortization class (PAC) tranches
Explanation:
The planned amortization class (PAC) is a form of CMO which is typically put I place for that risk-averse investors. It gives a principal repayment schedule that have been predetermined in as much as there are certain range for the mortgage prepayment.
It should also be noted that it has top priority and also gets principal payments which can be up to certain amount.
Answer:
a. $418,000
Explanation:
The computation of the contribution margin of the West business segment is shown below:
Contribution margin = Sales revenue - variable expenses
= $890,000 - $472,000
= $418,000
By deducting the variable expenses from the sales revenue we can get the contribution margin and we applied the same that is shown above.
Answer:
Hawthorne effect
Explanation:
The Hawthorne effect refers to a reaction of the workers included in this experiment where their behavior will be modified (their productivity increased) simply because they know they are being observed. The study should be about how changes in the environment affect productivity, but what really affects productivity is the fact that the workers know they are being part of the study.
In the original Hawthorne experiments, if lighting was increased, productivity increased, but if lighting decreased, productivity also increased. So the changes in productivity had nothing to due with lightning conditions, but rather the fact that the workers were being part of an experiment.
Answer:
$36.79
Explanation:
Calculation to determine What will be the IPO price per share
First step is to calculate the Cumulative shares
Cumulative shares = 375,000 + 400,000 + 250,000 + 400,000 + 2 million
Cumulative shares = 3.425 million
Now let calculate the IPO price
IPO price = $14 × $9 million / 3.425 million
IPO price= $36.79
Therefore What will be the IPO price per share is $36.79
Explanation & answer:
Cash basis, so all monies retain same values over the years.
Let x = payback period in years
Salvage value of machine
= 48000 - 4000x
Sales
= 16000x
Total revenue after x years
R = 16000x
Expenditures over x years
C = Cost of machine + materials + depreciation
= 48000 + 8000x + 4000x
= 48000 + 12000x
For payback
R = C
16000x = 48000 +12000x
Solve for x
x = 48000/4000 = 12 years
By that time, the machine has no more salvage value.
