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3 years ago

Downward influence is best achieved through

Business

1 answer:

jonny [76]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

C- an inspiring vision

Explanation:

Downward influence is the ability to influence employees lower than you. This is best achieved through an inspiring vision. By articulating a clear vision, you help people see the end goal and move toward it. You often don’t need to specify exactly what needs to be done to get there—people will be able to figure it out on their own. An inspiring vision builds buy-in and gets people moving in the same direction.

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A bank has $50 million in assets, $47 million in liabilities and $3 million in shareholders' equity. If the duration of its liab

Alisiya [41]

Answer: 1.222

Explanation:

The Average duration can be derived from the formula:

Assets * Average Duration = Liabilities * Duration of Liabilities

Average Duration = (Liabilities * Duration of Liabilities) / Assets

= (47,000,000 * 1.3) / 50,000,000

= 61,100,000 / 50,000,000

= 1.222

5 0

3 years ago

The risk-free rate is 3%. MCD currently prices at $25. The Delta of a 1-year at-the-money European call on MCD is 0.5. John has

erica [24]

Answer:

Short 1.5 shares

Explanation:

Given data :

Risk free rate = 3%

current price ( market price ) = $25

Delta of 1-year at money European call on MCD = 0.5

<u>Determine how many shares of MCD John should either Long or short to achieve a delta-neutral </u>

use the relation below

4 * 0.5 + 1 ( 0.5 - 1 ) + x = 0

x ( number of shares ) = - [ 4 * 0.5 + 1 ( 0.5 - 1 ) ]

= - 1.5 shares

negative ( - ) means MCD should short 1.5 shares

5 0

2 years ago

Kilala moba ako filipino ako panget mo

hammer [34]

Answer:

Mas pangít ka

Mas pangít ka sa daga

Kamuka mo si babalu

5 0

3 years ago

You have $12,500 you want to invest for the next 30 years. You are offered an investment plan that will pay you 7 percent per ye

lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

Balance after 30 years = $151,018.50

Explanation:

In order to calculate this, we will calculate the future value on an amount invested, gaining interest over the years of investment, and this is given by:

$FV = PV (1 + r)^{t}$

where:

FV = future value

PV = present value

r = interest rate

t = time in years.

Hence the future value is calculated as follows:

1. For the first 10 years at 7% interest:

7% interest = 7/100 = 0.07

$FV = 12,500 (1 + 0.07)^{10}$

$FV = 12,500 (1.07)^{10}\\FV = 12,500 * 1.967 = 24,589.392$

2. For the last 20 years at 9.5%(0.095) interest:

Note that for the remaining 20 years, the present value (PV) used = 24,589.392, as ending balance after the first 10 years

$FV = 24,589.392 (1 + 0.095)^{20}$

$FV = 24,589.392 (1.095)^{20}\\FV= 24,589.392 * 6.1416\\FV = 151,018.496$

Total Future value earned = $151,018.50

5 0

3 years ago

Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

jhgiojhugfvcpokjhgfuhjkm,l;/;.l,kmjbh

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago