Answer:
y = 2x - 3
Step-by-step explanation:
The y-intercept is -3 because that is where the line hits the y-axis.
The slope is 2 because from 1 point the the next, you go up 2 right 1.
Let workout Plan A last a hours, and Plan B last b hours.
we are assuming personal training for each client.
i)
"On Monday there were 2 clients who did Plan A and 3 who did Plan"
the total time spent is : 2*a + 3*b =2a+3b
ii)
"On Tuesday there were 4 clients who did Plan A and 8 who did Plan B"
the total time spent was 4*a+8*b=4a+8b
iii) "Joe trained his Monday clients for a total of 7 hours"
so 2a+3b = 7
iv)
"Joe trained his Tuesday clients for a total of 17 hours"
so 4a+8b=17
v) thus we have the following system of equations:
2a+3b = 7
4a+8b=17
multiply the first equation by -2, and then add both equations, to eliminate a:
-4a-6b=-14
4a+8b=17
-------------------
2b=3, so b=3/2
2a+3b = 7
2a+3(3/2)=7
2a+9/2=7
multiply by 2:
4a+9=14
4a=5
a=5/4
Answer :
Plan A lasts 5/4=1.25 h
Plan B lasts 3/2=1.5 h
Answer:
3/28
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: none
Step-by-step explanation:
(A)
(16÷32/10) ×2 + 0.2×(90)
Using bodmas principle ; solve bracket
(16×10/32)×2 + (2/10×90)
10+18 =28
(B)
{(16÷32/10) × (2+2/10)} ×90
Open brackets
{(16×10/32) × (22/10)} ×90
(5×11/5) ×90
11×90 = 990
(C)
16÷{(32/10×2) + (2/10×8)} +82
Open brackets, solve division first, dolled by addition
16÷(32/5 + 8/5) +82
16÷(40/5) +82
16÷8 +82
2+82= 84
(D)
[16÷(32/10 ×2) + 0.2× (90)]
16÷ (32/5) + 2/10 ×90
Solve division
16×5/32 + 18
5/2 + 18
L.c.m of denominator (2&1) =2
(5+36) / 2 = 41/2
=20.5
Answer:
y=-1x+8
Step-by-step explanation:
idk what to do here
