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pantera1 [17]
3 years ago
5

If Campbell were to offer single serving "Soup for One" packages to household markets, it would be using segmentation based on

Business
1 answer:
Fittoniya [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Family life cycle

Explanation:

If Campbell were to offer single serving "Soup for One" packages to household markets, it would be using segmentation based on Family life cycle. This method separates the aspects of the family market at different stages of life.

This model gives a description of the stages that consumers encounter in their lives when they have families. It takes family size, age of customer and professional status into consideration.

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Sean is looking for sources to fund a community event. He posts his idea on a website describing his project and asking for dona
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

the answer of this question is d.)donation crowdfunding

7 0
3 years ago
Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2020, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory accoun
Art [367]

Answer:

the Cost of Goods Sold balance after the proration is $56,140 (none of the suggested solutions)

Explanation:

<em>Step 1 Consider whether there was an Over or Under Application of Overheads.</em>

Applied Manufacturing Overhead $98,400 > Actual Manufacturing Overhead $93,000

Overheads were thus Over-Applied by $5,400

<em>Step 2 Allocate the Over- Application of Overheads to Closing Inventory in proportion to their weightings</em>

Item                                                             Total         Weight %      Allocation

Cost of Goods Sold                                 $59,400        60.37%        3,260

Finished Goods Inventory accounts      $39,000         39.63%        2,140

Total                                                         $98,400       100.00%        5,400

Balances after allocation :

Cost of Goods Sold = $59,400 - $3,260 = $56,140

<em></em>

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The management option that can provide on-site infrastructure access when the network is down or complete remote access in cases
muminat

Answer:

It is known as out-of-band management

Explanation:

Out-of-band management is a device and system management technique that involves an alternative and efficient connection to the system which is separate from the main network that the system runs on allowing an administrator to establish a system of trust boundaries since there would only be a single entry point for the management interface.

Device management through out-of-band management is very secure and safe because it does not allow any unauthorized user to be able to access the network channel because there is no connection from the regular network channel that is available for everyone.

This channel management interface is very efficient and a very powerful management tool because it is always available even when network is down or device is turned off or not accessible through the operating system making it easy to be remotely managed.

An example configuration for out-of-band management is the blade systems with dedicated management modules often offering a dedicated OOB Ethernet port

6 0
3 years ago
During March, a music store had net sales of $270,000. The gross profit was $121,500 and the operating expenses were $108,000. A
lozanna [386]

Answer:

Gross profit margin = 45%

Net income = $13,500

Net profit margin = 5%

Explanation:

Net sales = $270,000.

Gross profit = $121,500

Operating expenses = $108,000

Gross profit margin = (Gross profit ÷ net sales) × 100

Gross profit margin = $(121,500 ÷ 270,000) × 100

Gross profit margin = 0.45 × 100 = 45%

Net income for March :

Gross profit - Total expenses

$121,500 - $108,000 = $13,500

Net profit margin :

(Net profit ÷ net sales) × 100

(13500 ÷ 270,000) × 100

Net profit margin = 5%

3 0
4 years ago
1. Russell's of Townville needs to borrow $48,000 for one year. The bank requires a 10 percent compensating balance on any amoun
babunello [35]

Answer:

D. 10.0%

Explanation:

As the bank reqiresd 10% compensating balance the actual amount unrestricted for the loan is 48,000 x (1 - 10%) = 43,200

and from this amount we have to solve for the effective rate:

principal x rate = interest

48,000 x 0.09 = 4,320

now we divide the interest over the actual principal to know the effective rate:

4,320 / 43,200 = 0.10 = 10%

8 0
3 years ago
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