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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
14

Your buddy in mechanical engineering has invented a money machine. The main drawback of the machine is that it is slow. It takes

one year to manufacture $100. ​However, once​ built, the machine will last forever and will require no maintenance. The machine can be built​ immediately, but it will cost $1,000 to build. Your buddy wants to know if he should invest the money to construct it. If the interest rate is 9.5% per​ year. a. What should your buddy​ do? b. What is your advice if the machine takes one year to​ build?
Business
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

 

Explanation:

a ) We shall calculate the NPV of the project . If it is positive , then money can be invested

Cash outflow in the beginning =1000

Present value of perpetual annuity of 100 at 9.5 %

100 / .095

= 1052.63

which is more than initial cash outflow

So NPV is positive

Hence money can be invested.

b )

If machine takes one year to build , first year cash outflow of 100 will be absent

Present value of 100 after 1 year

= 100 / 1.095

= 91.32

So present value of annuity

= 1052.63 - 91.32

= 961.31

This is less than 1000 so

NPV is negative.

Hence money can not be invested.

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Arada [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is:

Debit: Account receivable $5,800

Credit: Sales revenue $5,800

Debit: Cost of goods sold $4,000

Credit: Merchandise inventory $4,000

Explanation:

On 1st May

Upon sale of inventory on credit

Debit: Account receivable $5,800

Credit: Sales revenue $5,800

On 1st May

To record cost of goods sold of merchandise inventory:

Debit: Cost of goods sold $4,000

Credit: Merchandise inventory $4,000

5 0
3 years ago
On May 10, 2020, Splish Co. enters into a contract to deliver a product to Greig Inc. on June 15, 2020. Greig agrees to pay the
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

May 15, 2020

No Entry

June 15, 2020

Debit: Account Receivable 2,060

Credit Revenue 2,060

Debit COGS 1,380

Credit Inventory 1,380

July 15, 2020

Debit Cash 2,060

Credit Account Receivable 2,060

Explanation:

Preparation of the journal entries for Splish related to this contract.

May 15, 2020

No Entry

June 15, 2020

Debit: Account Receivable 2,060

Credit Revenue 2,060

Debit COGS 1,380

Credit Inventory 1,380

July 15, 2020

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Credit Account Receivable 2,060

4 0
2 years ago
I’m<br> Sorry if this is hard to read but help me please it’s very important!!!!
Archy [21]

The answer is to know the reliability of the informationa

8 0
3 years ago
2 Jodi owns 112 shares of stock selling for $16.20. How many more shares can she purchase after receiving a dividend of $0.80 po
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

The number of new shares = 6

Explanation:

Dividend is the proportion of profit paid by a company to its shareholder as a form of return on their investment. Another form of return on share investment is the capital gain; which is the difference between the selling price of a share now and its cost when it was purchased.

<em>For Jodi, we need to first calculate the amount of dividends earned on the total shares she owns. And then divide the result by the current purchase price of a share to arrive at the number of shares she can buy more.</em> This is done as follows:

Total dividends =  112× 0.80 = $89.6

Current price of a share = $16.20

THe number of shares that can be purchased= 89.6/16.20=5.5

The number of new shares = 6

6 0
3 years ago
Computech Corporation is expanding rapidly and currently needs to retain all of its earnings; hence, it does not pay dividends.
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

$9.687

Explanation:

Given:

Year 3 dividend = $1.00

Year4&5 growth rate = 17%

Constant rate = 7%

Required return rate = 16%

Year 4 dividend wil be:

D4 = 1.00 * 1+growth rate

= 1.00 * (1+0.17)

= $1.17

Year 5 dividend=

D5 = $1.17 * (1+0.17)

= $1.3689

Value of stock after year 5 will be given as:

\frac{D5 * (1+growth rate)}{required return - growth rate}

= \frac{1.3689*(1+0.07)}{0.16-0.07}

= $16.2747

For the current value of stock, we have:

Cv= Fd* Pv of discounting factor

Where Cv = current value of stock

Fd = future dividend

Pv = Present value of discounting factor

Therefore,

C_v = \frac{1.00}{1.16^3} + \frac{1.17}{1.16^4} + \frac{1.3689}{1.16^5} + \frac{16.2746}{1.16^5}

=$9.6871382455

≈ $9.687

The value of stock today =

$9.687

8 0
3 years ago
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