Answer:
c. It may provide only a temporary market advantage.
Explanation:
According to my research, the first mover strategy is a marketing strategy that offers an advantage by gaining the initial significant occupant of a market segment. This is usually caused by the inquiry of new technological leadership or purchase of early resources, even though this may only provide a temporary market advantage.
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Answer:
$1
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Purchasing price of stock = $53
exercise price of the stock = $50
Price of the stock = $56
Premium per share = $4
Now,
The gain is calculated as :
Gain = exercise price + Premium per share - Purchased stock
or
Gain = $50 + $4 - $53
or
Gain = $1
Hence,
The gain per share to the pension fund is $1
Answer:
A. increase in sales volume
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question, the one that would best explain the sales volume variance for sales revenue will be increase in sales volume according to the to the table given above
The applicable formula is;
A = P(1-r)^n
Where;
A = Final purchasing power
P = Current purchasing power
r = inflation
n = Number of years when P changes to A
Confirming the first claim:
A = 1/2P (to be confirmed)
P = $3
r = 7% = 0.07
n = 10.25 years
Using the formula;
A = 3(1-0.07)^10.25 = 3(0.475) ≈ 3(0.5) = $1.5
And therefore, A = 1/2P after 10.25 years.
Now, give;
P = $9
A = 1/4P = $9/4 = $2.25
r = 6.5% = 0.065
n = ? (nearest year).
Substituting;
2.25 = 9(1-0.065)^n
2.25/9 = (1-0.065)^n
0.25 = (1-0.065)^n
ln (0.25)= n ln(1-0.065)
-1.3863 = -0.0672n
n = (-1.3863)/(-0.0672) = 20.63 years
To nearest year;
n = 21 years
Therefore, it would take approximately 21 years fro purchasing power to reduce by 4. That is, from $9 to $2.25.
