All categories

3 years ago

Jock is 5 years older than sam , who is m years old. the sum of their ages is

Mathematics

1 answer:

Colt1911 [192]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: 2m+5

Steps:

Sam = m years old

Jock = (m+5) years old, because Jock is 5 years older than Sam

Sum of their ages means we add them up

m+(m+5) = m+m+5 = (m+m)+5 = 2m+5

You might be interested in

Find the midpoint given the endpoints (4,-10) (22,-4) Please do not use space when

Elza [17]

Answer: (13,-7)

Step-by-step explanation:

By using the formula $(x_{m},y_{m}) =(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2} }{2},\frac{y_{1}+y_{2} }{2} )$

$(x_{m},y_{m})\\$ is the coordinates of the midpoint.

For finding the midpoint X variable do:

$(\frac{4+22}{2})=13$

For finding the midpoint Y variable do:

$\frac{-10+(-4)}{2} = -7$ (you can either keep the parenthesis or take them out. Either way, the answer is the same.

Considering coordinate numbers follow the format: (x,y), you'll simply just substitute the numbers found above into their respective places.

x: 13

y: -7

(13,-7).

6 0

3 years ago

Which expression is equivalent to (2x – 3)2 – 3.5x2(2x –5) + 6x(2.5x2 – x + 3.1)?

Olegator [25]

Answer:

Yuhh the answers c dawhggg trus me i just did the same thing lawl!

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

If one root is the square of the other in the equation 8+mx+27x²=0,find the value of m

aleksklad [387]

Answer:

The value of $m$ is -30.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let $27\cdot x^{2}+m\cdot x +8 = 0$ , we notice that expression is a second order polynomials. We can rearrange the polynomial and use factorization to calculate all roots:

$x^{2}+\frac{m}{27}\cdot x + \frac{8}{27} = 0$ (1)

$-x^{2}-x = \frac{m}{27}$ (2)

$x^{3} = \frac{8}{27}$ (3)

From (3) we find the least root:

$x = \sqrt [3]{\frac{8}{27}}$

$x = \frac{2}{3}$

By (2) we have the value of $m$ :

$m = -27\cdot (x^{2}+x)$

$m = -30$

3 0

3 years ago

What is the value of z?

Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

z = 23 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Total degree inside a triangle = 180

We can add up the 2 angles we got.

62 + 95 = 157

Subtract 157 from 180.

180 - 157 = 23

Check = the angle missing is an acute angle (less than 90 degrees) and 23 is less than 90 degrees so it is possible.

I hope this helped and please mark me as brainliest!

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume

mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

$P(W)=0.80$

Then the probability that the player losses is,

$P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20$

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = $P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = $1-P(L)-P(WL)$

$=1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let X = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable $X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)$

The probability distribution of binomial is:

$P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}$

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (X ≥ 1) = 1 - P (X < 1)

= 1 - P (X = 0)

$=1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0

3 years ago