As a result of the demand increasing only slightly compared to the reduction in price, the demand must be <u>inelastic</u>.
<h3>Why is the demand inelastic?</h3><h3 />
The demand is considered to be inelastic if the price elasticity is less than 1.
The price elasticity is:
= (%Change in quantity/% Change in price)
Solving gives:
= 15 / 200 ÷ 0.50 / 3.50
= -0.525
In conclusion, the demand for the shakes is inelastic.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/1899986.
Answer:
I'm going to say the answer is B ! I could be wrong but this is what i think :)
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is: A) When the marginal cost of producing an additional unit equals the marginal revenue from that unit.
Explanation:
In economics, we assume that a company´s main goal is to maximize its profit. In order for any company do to this, the marginal cost (MC) of producing an extra unit of production must equal the marginal revenue (MR) obtained by selling that extra unit of production.
Theoretically, in perfect market conditions, MR=MC in the equilibrium point between quantity supplied and quantity demanded. But on real world conditions elasticity of both demand and supply alter the curves.
<span>If an increase in the supply of a product in the market results in a decrease in price, but no change in the quantity traded, then the quantity of products will be growing and growing in the stock. this will again lead to a decrease in price and consumes more time to sale their stock. This will create a heavy loss to the investor. It may be overcome by innovative thoughts such as stopping the production of current product and launching a new product with available materials. So that it will balance the production and sale.</span>
