Answer:
$38.64
Step-by-step explanation:
so the equation needed to solve is $56*0.25 and that number is 14. Since it is a coupon you subtract 14 from 56 and end up with 42. Now multiply 0.08*42 and you got your sales tax, $3.36. now subtract that from 42 and you have your answer! Don't forget the dollar sign!
hope this helped! : )
Answer:
The probability that exactly one switch is good is

Step-by-step explanation:
The probability that a switch is defective is:

The probability that a switch is not defective is

Therefore, if two switches are selected, the probability that exactly 1 is good is:



Hey ! there
Answer:
- Value of missing side i.e. TE is <u>1</u><u>2</u><u> </u><u>feet</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question we are provided with a <u>right</u><u> </u><u>angle </u><u>triangle</u> having <u>TS </u><u>-</u><u> </u><u>35</u><u> </u><u>ft </u><u>and</u><u> </u><u>SE </u><u>-</u><u> </u><u>37</u><u> </u><u>ft </u>. And we are asked to find the missing side that is <u>TE </u>using Pythagorean Theorem .
<u>Pythagorean Theorem :</u> -
According to Pythagorean Theorem sum of squares of perpendicular and base is equal to square of hypotenuse in a right angle triangle i.e.
<u>Where </u><u>,</u>
- H refers to <u>Hypotenuse</u>
- P refers to <u>Perpendicular</u>
<u>Solution</u><u> </u><u>:</u><u> </u><u>-</u>
In the given triangle ,
- Perpendicular = <u>TS </u><u>(</u><u> </u><u>35</u><u> </u><u>feet </u><u>)</u>
- Hypotenuse = <u>SE </u><u>(</u><u> </u><u>37</u><u> </u><u>feet </u><u>)</u>
Now applying Pythagorean Theorem :

Substituting values :

Simplifying it ,

Subtracting 1225 on both sides :

We get ,

Applying square root to both sides :

We get ,

- <u>Henceforth</u><u> </u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>missing </u><u>side </u><u>is </u><em><u>1</u></em><em><u>2</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>feet </u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
<u>Verifying</u><u> </u><u>:</u><u> </u><u>-</u>
Now we are verifying our answer using Pythagorean Theorem . We know that according to Pythagorean Theorem ,
Substituting value of SE , TS and TE :
- 37² = 35² + <u>1</u><u>2</u><u>²</u>
<u>Therefore</u><u> </u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>our</u><u> answer</u><u> is</u><u> correct</u><u> </u><u>.</u>
<h2>
<u>#</u><u>K</u><u>e</u><u>e</u><u>p</u><u> </u><u>Learning</u></h2>
Answer:
a = jd
Step-by-step explanation:
We want to solve for a given that a/d = j
To do so we want to isolate a (get a by itself )
We can do this by using inverse operations.
We would want to get rid of the d
A is being divided by d.
The inverse of division is multiplication so to get rid of the d we multiply a/d by d but whatever we do to one side we must do to the other so we multiply both sides by d
a/d * d = a
j * d = jd
we are then left with a = jd
And we are done!