Answer:
the answer is A. exchange
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Answer:
a. Terrell's Optimal Capital Structure is 40:60. It means to obtain optimal capital structure in-order to increase value of firm, Terrell should finance 40% of its Assets through Debt and remaining through Common Equity.
b. The optimal Capital Structure is the point where company's WACC is minimized. So, 40:60 is the ratio where Terrell's WACC will be minimized.
Explanation:
The goal of Management is to increase Shareholders' wealth and not to generate profits because wealth is something that is for long-run whereas Profits are temporary. Management would accept projects having negative NPV if its goal is to maximize Profit.
Maximizing Shareholders' wealth means to increase the Share Price whereas Generating a higher EPS is Profit Maximization Strategy. So, you should look for that Capital Structure Point where the Company's Stock Price is Highest.
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Answer:
Your answer to your Question is D. economists always agree on solutions to economic problems and have helped solve all major global financial crises.I HOPE I HELPED YOU GIVE ME BRAINLIST PLEASE Thank you have a nice day!
Answer:
The answer is $13,558
Explanation:
βP = 1.0 = 1.48A+ [.72 × (1-A)]
A = .368421
Investment in Stock A = $36,800 × .368421 = $13,558
<span>The most likely effect of a write-down of inventory to net realizable on a firm's total asset turnover is an increase.
</span>A write-down of inventory to net realizable value is typically recognized as an increase in cost of goods sold in the period of the write-down, according the <span>inventory equation:
</span><span>ending inv</span>entory = beginning inventory + purchases - cost of goods sold
