It can make them feel uncomforable and feel like you don't like them or make them feel a certain way that is not usually good
Answer: Social influence
Explanation:
The reservation price is the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay for a product. For a consumer, the difference in the reservation price and the agreed price that the buyer finally pay for the product is the consumer surplus.
Social influence is a factor that affects ones reservation price. As individuals, social forces influences our demand. The cost of producing the product is a supply-side factor that will affect the supply but will not affect the reservation price. The price of the good also does not affect the reservation price.
Answer:
The correct answer is: B. Uso de transacciones del Repo 105.
Explanation:
The Lehman Brothers bankruptcy case describes one of the events that led to the most important bankruptcy in history.
The collapse of Lehman in September 2008 was the consequence of a fatal combination of intricate accounting rules, complex derivatives, greed, excessive leverage and the complacency of rating agencies. In addition, it was the trigger for a chain reaction in all financial institutions that suffered from panic and the frozen liquidity that followed later.
Lehman's equivalent of pre-paid transactions is Repo 105, a fascinating term that, from now on, will become the new example to deceive analysts and investors.
Through these transactions, Lehman Brothers was able to reduce leverage on the right side of the balance sheet and, at the same time, reduce assets (some of them undesirable) on the left side. Duplicate Repo 105 transactions between the end of 2006 and May 2008, were known within the company, exceeded the self-imposed limits by the firm and typically occurred at the end of each quarter, when financial information had to be released.
The fact is as simple as the Repo 105 program transformed a financial transaction into an asset disposal.
Answer:
c. $800,178.79
Explanation:
In this question we use the Present value formula that is shown on the attachment below:
Given that
Future value = $1,000,000
PMT = 1,000,000 × 3% ÷ 2 = $15,000
NPER = 3 years × 2 = 6 years
Rate of interest = 11% ÷ 2 = 5.5%
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after solving this, the present value would be $800,178.79
Answer:
The correct answer is "32.076%".
Explanation:
Given:
Initial investment,
= $500,000
Cash inflows,
= $500,000
The floatation cost will be:
=
= ($)
The total cost will be:
=
=
=
hence,
The rate of return will be:
=
=
=
=
= (%)