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Vesna [10]
3 years ago
14

Consider the production possibilities frontier model for an economy that produces only two goods: barley and cars.

Business
1 answer:
Alex17521 [72]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Production Possibilities Frontier

Explanation:

In a theoretical economy, the production possibilities frontier, is the curve that shows the  combination of goods produced (barley and cars) by an economy given a limited resource. Furthermore the more goods (barley) is produced, the less cars are produced. Thus, for every additional barley's produced, there's an opportunity cost of cars.

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Much of the supply of ________________ is from china and india where chemical manufacturers have less government oversight.
Eva8 [605]
The answer in the space provided is 'coming from'. It is because the countries like China and India has government which has less over sight which enables them to transport goods from chemical manufacturers because of their government that are not that strict in terms of transporting goods to other countries compared to others countries that have more over sight and are more strict.
7 0
2 years ago
predetermined overhead rate on the estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginning of the most recently complete
Papessa [141]

Answer:

Total overhead rate =  $34.17  per machine hour

Explanation:

The total overhead rate would  the sum of the variable overhead rate and the fixed overhead rate

<em>The pre-determined fixed overhead absorption rate = Estimated fixed overhead /Estimated machine hours </em>

<em>DATA:</em>

<em>Estimated overhead       - $256,500.</em>

<em>Estimated machine hours -  10,000 machine hours</em>

The pre-determined fixed overhead absorption rate =

$256,500/ 10,000 machine hours = 25.65  per hour

<em>The pre-determined overhead absorption rate = $25.65  per hour</em>

Total overhead rate = Variable rate + Fixed rate

                                 = $8.52 +  $25.65 = $34.17

Total overhead rate =  $34.17  per machine hour

3 0
2 years ago
Amsted, Inc. is considering a project that will increase revenues by $2.5 million, cash operating expenses by $700,000, and depr
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

incremental after tax cash flow for 2011: $1,145,000

Explanation:

Additional revenue                                                 $2,500,000

Cash operating expenses                                       ($700,000)

Depreciation and amortization expenses               ($300,000)

<u>Reduced inventories                                               ($200,000)</u>

Pretax income                                                         $1,300,000

<u>Less taxes 35%                                                        ($455,000)</u>

Net income                                                                $845,000

<u>Add Depreciation and amort. expenses                  $300,000</u>

Free cash flow                                                           $1,145,000

5 0
3 years ago
Direct labor and indirect labor are recorded, respectively, to: Multiple Choice Work in Process Inventory and Factory Overhead.
Nana76 [90]

Direct labor and indirect labor are recorded in work in Process Inventory and Factory Overhead. Option A is correct.

<h3>What is indirect labor?</h3>

Indirect labor are expenses incurred during manufacturing process which are not directly, some logistics cost can be here.

Direct labor are charged directly in production such as cost of resources. They are recorded in the company overall spending called overhead cost.

Therefore, Direct labor and indirect labor are recorded in work in Process Inventory and Factory Overhead. Option A is correct.

Learn more on labour below

brainly.com/question/453055

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose that General Motors Acceptance Corporation issued a bond with 10 years until maturity, a face value of $1000, and a coup
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

Ans. The price of the bond immediately after it makes its first coupon payment is $1,068.02

Explanation:

Hi, we have to bring to present value the remaining cash flows, that is 9 coupons and its face value, so we need to use the following equation.

Price=\frac{Coupon((1+YTM)^{n}-1) }{YTM(1+YTM)^{n} } +\frac{FaceValue}{(1+YTM)^{n} }

Where:

Coupon = 0.07*$1,000=$70

YTM = Yield to maturity, in our case 6% or 0.06

n = 9 (since the bond is paying every year and there are 9 years left until maturity)

Face Value= $1,000.

Everything should look like this

Price=\frac{70((1+0.06)^{9}-1) }{0.06(1+0.06)^{9} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.06)^{9} }

Therefore:

Price=476.12+591.90=1,068.02

So, the price of this bond right after paying its first coupon is $1,068.02

Best of luck.

8 0
2 years ago
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