The answer in the space provided is 'coming from'. It is because the countries like China and India has government which has less over sight which enables them to transport goods from chemical manufacturers because of their government that are not that strict in terms of transporting goods to other countries compared to others countries that have more over sight and are more strict.
Answer:
Total overhead rate = $34.17 per machine hour
Explanation:
The total overhead rate would the sum of the variable overhead rate and the fixed overhead rate
<em>The pre-determined fixed overhead absorption rate = Estimated fixed overhead /Estimated machine hours </em>
<em>DATA:</em>
<em>Estimated overhead - $256,500.</em>
<em>Estimated machine hours - 10,000 machine hours</em>
The pre-determined fixed overhead absorption rate =
$256,500/ 10,000 machine hours = 25.65 per hour
<em>The pre-determined overhead absorption rate = $25.65 per hour</em>
Total overhead rate = Variable rate + Fixed rate
= $8.52 + $25.65 = $34.17
Total overhead rate = $34.17 per machine hour
Answer:
incremental after tax cash flow for 2011: $1,145,000
Explanation:
Additional revenue $2,500,000
Cash operating expenses ($700,000)
Depreciation and amortization expenses ($300,000)
<u>Reduced inventories ($200,000)</u>
Pretax income $1,300,000
<u>Less taxes 35% ($455,000)</u>
Net income $845,000
<u>Add Depreciation and amort. expenses $300,000</u>
Free cash flow $1,145,000
Direct labor and indirect labor are recorded in work in Process Inventory and Factory Overhead. Option A is correct.
<h3>
What is indirect labor?</h3>
Indirect labor are expenses incurred during manufacturing process which are not directly, some logistics cost can be here.
Direct labor are charged directly in production such as cost of resources. They are recorded in the company overall spending called overhead cost.
Therefore, Direct labor and indirect labor are recorded in work in Process Inventory and Factory Overhead. Option A is correct.
Learn more on labour below
brainly.com/question/453055
#SPJ1
Answer:
Ans. The price of the bond immediately after it makes its first coupon payment is $1,068.02
Explanation:
Hi, we have to bring to present value the remaining cash flows, that is 9 coupons and its face value, so we need to use the following equation.

Where:
Coupon = 0.07*$1,000=$70
YTM = Yield to maturity, in our case 6% or 0.06
n = 9 (since the bond is paying every year and there are 9 years left until maturity)
Face Value= $1,000.
Everything should look like this

Therefore:

So, the price of this bond right after paying its first coupon is $1,068.02
Best of luck.