Yes, 1/4 is bigger than 1/20
Recall the inverse function theorem: if f(x) has an inverse, and if f(a) = b and a = f⁻¹(b), then
f⁻¹(f(x)) = x ⇒ (f⁻¹)'(f(x)) • f'(x) = 1 ⇒ (f⁻¹)'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
⇒ (f⁻¹)'(b) = 1/f'(a)
Let b = 10. Then pick the function f(x) such that f(a) = 10 and f'(a) = -8 for some number a.
Answer:
The answer is 1.2
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helps
Answer:30 yards i think not sure
Step-by-step explanation:
